Perfect Noah

Discussion in 'General Baptist Discussions' started by Rubato 1, Dec 11, 2007.

  1. Rubato 1

    Rubato 1
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    Mar 31, 2006
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    Someone told me the other day that Noah's being "perfect in his generations" meant that he was racially pure, and that he was the only one who had not "corrupted his way upon the earth." (See Genesis 6:9-12) "Perfect in his generations" is not only difficult for me, but unique in the Word of God (as far as I can tell. Does anyone have a better opinion on what that might mean? I want to know what this phrase might indicate. See you all tomorrow..:sleeping_2:
  2. Ed Edwards

    Ed Edwards
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    Aug 20, 2002
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    'perfect', especially in the KJVs, means
    'complete' not 'without sin'. The most popular KJV
    today is the KJV1768 Edition - in 1768 the
    word 'perfect' still usually meant
    'complete' not 'without sin'.
    (recall the US was independent of the King
    of England /and his oppressive Bible tax/ in
    1776. The most frequently used Bibles in
    the 13 colonies was the Geneva Bibles not
    the KJVs.)

    IMHO /in my humble opinion/ the KJV is not the
    best translation in this verse. It is quite possible
    to translate it less confusing here.
    Unfortunately some people have let thier
    misunderstanding of old terms color their doctrine.

    For good sport I'll quote a Bible older than the
    KJVs (first published in 1611):

    Gen 6:9 (Geneva Bible, 1599 Edition):
    These are the generations of Noah.
    Noah was a iust and vpright man in his time:
    and Noah walked with God.

    'upright' means 'did good stuff usually'
    a much better translation of the Hebrew term

    also the other question you have is simpler in
    this version. The scriptures speaks of the
    'time' of Noah (generation can also mean 'time')

    These misunderstandings of the KJVs is
    common in the 21st century (2001-2100) where
    I live.

    I believe that more than one
    good Bibles is superior to using
    just one Bible - it makes the scripture easier to

    I do make the following Axiom:
    The Bible is inerrant in all legitimate Translations
    and Versions.

    That obviously means:
    If I find what looks like an error between two
    passagges in one Bible or between Bibles -
    God didn't cause it, my misunderstanding caused
    And likewise - we can word together faster
    together than seperately to figure out what God
    is saying in His errorless (inerrant) written word.

    I keep trying to get the BB (Baptist Board) to make
    it's Versions & Translations Forum more user
    friendly so we can help each other understand
    the Bible more.
  3. skypair

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    Jun 25, 2006
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    Here's my thought ---- "perfect in his generations" means that he and his famly did not 1) take of the "daughters of men" (of Cain) to wife AND 2) they were monogamous. One of the "commandments" in the Garden was "leave and cleave" to ONE wife. The other "sons of God" (of Seth) took "as many as they desired" of the "daughters of men."


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