Many KJOs say that we must have a perfect translation into English in order to have God's Word. Personally I believe that the NT itself disproves this. 1 Corinthians2:9 But as it is written, Eye hath not seen, nor ear heard, neither have entered into the heart of man, the things which God hath prepared for them that love him. In this passage Paul is quoting Isaiah 64:4, let's take a look at it in the OT. Isaiah 64:4 For since the beginning of the world men have not heard, nor perceived by the ear, neither hath the eye seen, O God, beside thee, what he hath prepared for him that waiteth for him. As you can see, these two passages are different. This is because the Apostles used what is called the LXX or Septuagint. The LXX is a Greek translation of the OT. As illustrated above, it didn't always agree with the Hebrew text. Since the LXX was not perfect did the Apostles not have God's word? And if the Apostles didn't have a perfect translation, why must we?