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Peter’s mistake

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by stilllearning, Feb 5, 2011.

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  1. stilllearning

    stilllearning Active Member

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    First, lets look at Peter’s mistake..........
    Matthew 26:70
    "But he denied before [them] all, saying, I know not what thou sayest."

    Matthew 26:72
    “And again he denied with an oath, I do not know the man.”

    Matthew 26:74
    “Then began he to curse and to swear, [saying], I know not the man. And immediately the cock crew.”

    Now, why did Peter do this?
    It was because he was afraid of persecution.

    Well here on the BB, we have the same thing happening all the time.
    --------------------------------------------------
    Over and over again, I see people who might make any kind of a reference to the King James Bible and immediately they say.....“Oh, but I am not King James Bible Only”

    This would be funny, if it wasn’t so sad.

    What are you afraid of?!?
    Are you ashamed, to take a stand that you actually believe that God was able to preserve His Word in one English Bible?

    Man up and take a stand for the truth...........
    Jeremiah 12:5
    “If thou hast run with the footmen, and they have wearied thee, then how canst thou contend with horses? and [if] in the land of peace, [wherein] thou trustedst, [they wearied thee], then how wilt thou do in the swelling of Jordan?”
     
    #1 stilllearning, Feb 5, 2011
  2. Deacon

    Deacon Well-Known Member
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    #2 Deacon, Feb 5, 2011
    Last edited by a moderator: Feb 5, 2011
  3. mets65

    mets65 New Member

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    Maybe he did, but who says it was the KJV? I personally don't feel there's any "perfect" translation. If you prefer the KJV then awesome, but don't tell others what they should prefer. That's called being controlling.
     
    #3 mets65, Feb 5, 2011
  4. sag38

    sag38 Active Member

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    Stilllearning what is it with you. Do you have some kind of mandate from God to ensure that everyone is KJVO just like you? Has God personally annoited you the KJVO missionary to convert the ignorant masses who dare to use a NKJV or, God forbid, a NIV?

    I will not stand up and say that God has preserved His word in one perfect English version. That is an extra-Biblical stance that has no merit in God's word. You can't prove it historically and you cannot produce one legitimate verse in the Bible, be it KJV or the very orginal manuscripts to support your position. Shame on you for trying to force others to believe that which is legalistically false.
     
    #4 sag38, Feb 5, 2011
  5. annsni

    annsni Well-Known Member
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    Because KJVO is a false belief - one that makes God weak and none of us want to ever say that.
     
    #5 annsni, Feb 5, 2011
  6. jbh28

    jbh28 Active Member

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    It's not funny nor sad. It's people saying that while they use the KJV, they are not associated with those that are kjv only.

    And it's very inappropriate to compare the believers here that use the KJV, but not kjv only, to that of Peter denying Jesus. That's what sad.

    You thread isn't profitable at all. It's just putting down the KJV users that are not KJV only.
     
    #6 jbh28, Feb 5, 2011
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