The idea that some prophecy was/is conditional and other unconditional is compelling. A book I plan on reading soon is Conditional Futurism: New Perspective of End-Time Prophecy For some reason I have always considered prophecy statements to be unconditional. However, it seems that there is a case to be made for the idea that some (many?) prophetic statements in the Old T were conditional, even when the conditionality was not stated or implied. If such is the case then why would it be impossible for any New T prophetic statements to be conditional? If we consider prophetic statements to be "unconditional unless obviously stated otherwise", then it seems that our 'rules' will force our interpretation of current and future events since the prophecy declared is unconditionally certain to obtain. This kind of thinking seems to force me into a dispy or preterist eschatology, or at least the kind in which I was not confident. Even since a child I have always wondered at the logic of disclosing future events to your enemy. I was told that Satan must be blinded to the understanding of prophecy but I thought it funny that we would be able to understand it so certainly though. Recently I have read that it may be the case that Revelation and at least some other New T prophecy is a representation of what were at that time and under the current conditions the best plans of both God and Satan. The genuineness of God is one of the most important ideas for me personally so imo all scripture must be interpreted accordingly, including prophecy. So, the question I ask myself is, "What model maintains the integrity of God's genuineness while coherently and consistently is faithful to scripture?" I am no longer compelled to hold to the idea that all prophecy will certainly obtain regardless of what conditions actually obtain. So, the idea I'd like for us to grapple with in this thread is: For those that believe that "all prophecy is unconditional unless stated otherwise", how do you explain prophecy given in unconditional terms only to be revealed later that the prophecy was actually conditional? For example: Jeremiah 26:19 Did Hezekiah king of Judah and all Judah put him at all to death? did he not fear the LORD, and besought the LORD, and the LORD repented him of the evil which he had pronounced against them? Also, how do you explain scriptures like this where God seems to directly instruct us to interpret prophecy in a conditional manner: Ezekiel 33:14 And if I say to a wicked person, ‘You will surely die,’ but they then turn away from their sin and do what is just and right— 15 if they give back what they took in pledge for a loan, return what they have stolen, follow the decrees that give life, and do no evil—that person will surely live; they will not die.