There is a difference in these two words. I wonder if the BB folks would be interested in exploring the likes and differences between the words "propitiation" and "atonement?" propitiate means basically to appease or satisfy. Example: if one works to bring to a god some offering to assuage what they might consider the threat of punishment or some perceived need of favor - such as casting the maid into the volcano - that is appeasement - propitiation. Hilasterion is the Greek word translated as propitiation in the New Testament. It actually means to cover - an example from the Old Testament would be the act of covering the ark before it was taken from the tabernacle. Atonement means to make reparations or amends - such would be like the government making payment to people for inappropriate internment during WWII, or a civil suite seeking a certain financial settlement. It is indeed worthy to note that throughout the New Testament the Greek word katallage is better translated reconciliation or reconciled as is done in the NASB (See Romans 5 for example). I have tried to establish a short definition for each, and an extremely brief application to Scriptures in each case. But this is certainly not exhaustive, and perhaps some change of both definition and application will need to be made as the thread is pursued. So, BB. How then does the two words apply to the believer, and to what extent do the two words apply to God? Note: For those who are biased to desire that this thread turn into some cal/arm discussion, there is absolutely NO intent in the OP for that to be a question raised.