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Provide proof

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by av1611jim, Jan 15, 2007.

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  1. Logos1560

    Logos1560 Well-Known Member
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    Would not full readings be long readings so how are you claiming that long readings are different from full readings?

    Are you sure that the KJV always follows one of your claimed three types of readings? The KJV sometimes followed or has "short readings." In several verses, the KJV has shorter readings than those found in the Peshitta Syriac that is on the KJV-only view's good line of Bibles. At one psalm, the KJV has three fewer verses than the 1535 Coverdale's Bible and the 1539 Great Bible has. The KJV followed the short reading at Acts 4:25 since it does not have the phrase "through the Holy Spirit" that is found in some manuscripts in all four text types.

    Your three groups of manuscripts seem to contradict the claim of your fellow KJV-only advocate that there are only two lines of manuscripts and Bibles.
     
  2. Deacon

    Deacon Well-Known Member
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    What is your standard Rob?

    What is your absolute final authority Rob?


    When you don’t have the original documents you must develop a set of criterion to help you reconstruct them, using all the witnesses to the standard that you can find, specifically biblical manuscripts, lectionaries and various others theological writings.

    I apply general Canons of Textual Criticism and research the works of those more learned than I.

    As I’ve repeatedly said, I don’t feel that there are any major doctrinal issues between the different text types.

    So, to answer your question, my standard is the Word of God provided through the ages.

    Rob
     
  3. AVBunyan

    AVBunyan New Member

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    Yes, HanD, I do understand this and this was covered under my thread a while back, "What is Your Final Authority." You might want to go back and review the answers - was an interesting thead.

    Now your statement, 'absolute authority is Almighty God" -
    Question - How do you know what God says or has said since God does not speak audibly today...unless you are charasmatic in theology and believe you get extra revelation, which I do not believe you are charasmatic in theology..

    God bless :wavey:
     
  4. AVBunyan

    AVBunyan New Member

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    That is a very broad and general stroke you painted there Rob -

    God bless :wavey:
     
  5. Deacon

    Deacon Well-Known Member
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    Only because God has been so good to us!

    Rob
     
  6. AVBunyan

    AVBunyan New Member

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    I narrowed them down to 2 lines though there coould be a "minor" third but would it be connected to the minority? If I am way off then I'll research some more but I believe it gets down to 2 from what I've read.

    I am certianly not anyone's final authority here - research it out.

    Godo bless :wavey:
     
  7. NaasPreacher (C4K)

    NaasPreacher (C4K) Well-Known Member

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    The topic is is proving a body of manuscripts superior.


    We are back to opinions. Lets get back to the topic of proof or close the thread.
     
  8. av1611jim

    av1611jim New Member

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    Go ahead and close it Roger.
    We all agree that without the original autographs we have no PROOF for either side of the equation.
    Having said this may I have a voice vote and count?
    All in favor of stopping the juvenile arguments about which translation is the right one say AYE!

    You have your faith in yours, and I will have my faith in mine.

    And hopefully we BOTH will place our faith in the God who authored them according to our best understanding as He leads us individually.

    See Ya!
     
  9. NaasPreacher (C4K)

    NaasPreacher (C4K) Well-Known Member

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    Aye!

    Wow and amen! Most logical thing I have seen here in ages :) :applause:
     
  10. AVBunyan

    AVBunyan New Member

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    I apologize Jim if you feel I turned your thread into a "juvenile arguement".
    I was trying to show:
    1. That since the "originals" could not be used one had to move on to the next "standard" - the available manuscripts and..
    2. It appears that would not work due to the disagreements as a result of variations, etc. then...
    3. All one has left are the actual versions themselves since that is what the average Joe uses anyway..so...

    What is one's standard or standards for deciding which version/versions are "superior" then if the originals are gone and there is so much disagreement over the available manuscripts?

    I say look at what the manuscripts produced and what people actually read.

    I gave you my criteria for which I go by, which center on how the major doctrines are treated in the versions themselves.

    Again - sorry folks for the rabbit chasing but I knew where I was going and hadn't finished yet. But if you folks want to shut it down then fine with me, I'm easy to do business with. I will work out a way to re-work the direction I was heading in and move on.

    God bless :wavey:
     
  11. Keith M

    Keith M New Member

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    AYE!!!

    I'll second that! Amazingly, this pretty much sums up what many of us have been saying for a long, long time. Let's not just shut it down in this thread, but in others, too. We should all listen to the leading of the Holy Spirit in choosing a Bible version - not to what this person or that person thinks.
     
  12. AVBunyan

    AVBunyan New Member

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    Sounds good Keith but also sounds verrrryyyy "mystical".

    How are you saying the Spirit leads?

    I believe the Spirit speaks to saints through the written word.

    Oh boy - here we go.

    :wavey:
     
  13. Keith M

    Keith M New Member

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    There's nothing mystical about it, AVBunyan. Are you implying the Spirit can only speak through the written word? What about before folks had access to the written word - how did the Spirit speak to them?
     
  14. NaasPreacher (C4K)

    NaasPreacher (C4K) Well-Known Member

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    Everyone has agreed that there is no proof that any manuscript body is superior so I am closing this thread
     
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