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Providential Preservation

Discussion in '2005 Archive' started by LRL71, Feb 24, 2005.

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  1. #1) The Bible is silent about providential preservation and is therefore not a biblical doctrine.

    14.8%
  2. #2) The Bible is silent about providential preservation, but God's hand in preserving the text of th

    63.0%
  3. #3) The Bible has passages that lend support for providential preservation of the text of the Bible,

    14.8%
  4. #4) The Bible has passages that support providential preservation in which the text of the Bible was

    0 vote(s)
    0.0%
  5. #5) The Bible teaches providential preservation, where the text of the Bible was preserved perfectly

    7.4%
  6. #6) The Bible teaches that providential preservation was kept perfect in a text-type or group of man

    0 vote(s)
    0.0%
  1. Dave

    Dave Member
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    I have a perspective as one who believes the KJV to have the best basis and is therefore most reliable of the mainstream English translations.

    KJV is based on what has been called the Textus Receptus or Received Text. This was the text (as I understand it) based on the most commonly available Greek and Hebrew (and I suppose Aramaic when appropriate?) manuscripts available at the time.

    If one believes that God would preserve the original text in the original languages through the years, then this seems the most reliable text. Most modern translations are based on texts that are older and more recently discovered in archeological finds. Maybe there is a reason that God allowed these texts to be buried. As we know from the history of the early church, heresy has been a problem for quite a long time.

    Imagine someone in a thousand years finding a copy of one of the more spurious translations that are unique to one of the modern day heretical groups, such as the Mormons or Jehovah's Witnesses. Would they be on the right track to assume that, because these manuscripts are much older than most others that have survived to that day that they are more accurate?

    I do believe God has preserved his word throughout history. That is why I believe the KJV to be the most accurate of the modern translations.
     
  2. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    Dave...Can you explain the differences between the New testament quotes of the Old testament that differ from the Masoretic Text, from which the KJV's OT is translated?
     
  3. Ed Edwards

    Ed Edwards <img src=/Ed.gif>

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    To be correct and logical i believe you should have said:

    I have a perspective as one who believes the KJVs to have the best basis and are therefore most reliable of the mainstream English translations.

    KJVs are based on what has been called the Textus Receptus or Received Texts. This was the texts (as I understand it) based on the most commonly available Greek and Hebrew (and I suppose Aramaic when appropriate?) manuscripts available at the time.


    Amen, Brother -- Preach it! [​IMG]
     
  4. LRL71

    LRL71 New Member

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    Thank you everyone for your votes.....

    The polls are still open!

    Results so far....

    26 total votes.

    #1 - 2 votes (8%)
    #2 - 2 votes (8%)
    #3 - 16 votes (62%)
    #4 - 4 votes (15%)
    #5 - 0 votes (0%)
    #6 - 2 votes (8%)
     
  5. Dave

    Dave Member
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    I regret that I am not well enough versed in the subject to answer this. I argument was based on what I do know of the KJV translation as opposed to the modern ones (such as NIV), but you are getting to a deeper level than I have gotten.

    I know of the passages that you refer to, but not the reason for the differences. I have suspected it might have something to do with differences in language between Hebrew (the Old Testament language) and Greek (the New Testament language), but that is only supposition not the result of study on this issue.
     
  6. Dave

    Dave Member
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    Found it!

    NT quotes are from the Septuagent! At least according to what I am reading on certain web sites. Anyone with more knowledge of this care to confirm or disagree?
     
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