Psalm 51:5 always is at the forefront of every discussion concerning original sin, and original sin touches almost every other doctrine directly or indirectly. It deserves scrutiny on its own thread. Much has been said, but have we really looked careful at the construction of the verse itself? Here is a short portion of the following article found at this link: http://www.pinpointevangelism.com/libraryoftheologycom/writings/originalsin/Psalms_Fifty_One_Five-WilliamMurray.pdf Quote: “Psalm 51:5 - "Behold, I was shapen in iniquity, and in sin did my mother conceive me." KJV This is a Hebrew poetic parallelism, with the second line of the verse saying the same thing as the first line in a slightly different way. The first verb, of which David is the subject, is in the Pulal tense (as is "made" in # Job 15:7 ), which is an idiom used to refer to creation or origins, and is the 'passive' form of Polel ("formed": # Ps 90:2 Pro 26:10 ). TWOT, #623, 1:270. The subject of this verse is NOT the state or constitution of David's nature as a sinner at, or before, his birth. The subject is, as the verse clearly states, the `circumstances' of his conception- the sexual union which produced him was an act of sin, and addresses the unrighteousness of his mother's act, not anything (such as a sin nature) inherent within himself. (The NIV's version of this verse is an INTERPRETATION, not a translation: "Surely I was sinful at birth, sinful from the time my mother conceived me.")” I simply cannot find any fault with these statements. The subject indeed is indeed focusing on the circumstances surrounding his conception as opposed to what is commonly stated, i.e., some inherent sin nature. Thoughts?