Is it possible for a man of God be called to preach when he is married to a woman who was once divorced (due to infidelity) and this being his only marriage? I know what the Bible says as far as both being adulterers. But I do not see that applying to preaching if it is the mans only marriage. Now obviously this would be a mute point if the man had been divorced. Am I seeing this correctly or am I missing something? Please help.