I have heard, during arguments concerning the Apocrypha's place in the KJV, that there was no introduction before the apocrypha, stating that it wasnt inspired, and that it was just there. however Im wondering if these books were separate from the rest of the bible.. like.. was there the old testament, the apocrypha, and then the new testament? My grandmother passed away this morning. She was catholic. When we were at the nursing home last night, I happened to notice a New American Catholic bible. I opened it up, and saw nothing that said Apocrypha, or Deuterocannonical books. Instead, I was surprised to see that the different books were simply integrated into the old testament, and they were not necessarily in order together. I can see now where maybe the KJV translators had the apocrypha in there, but since it was separate, it would be understood that it was not considered inspired by them.