Question about the 1000 years of Christs Reign..

Wellmy friend, ...it seems you are asking for a book-length answer.

To be as short as possible:

1.No
2.Yes, but only they who qualify.
3.Yes
4.Yes
5.No
6.Yes and yes

You are welcome.

 

You said "We", so you mean us here, in the church age. For us then the answers are:
1. Yes, somewhat
2. Yes
3. Yes
4. Yes
5. No
6. Glorified (when he shall appear.. we shall be like Him). (This corruption must put on incorruption).

There will be those who will survive the tribulation. For them 1-4 is the same, while 5 is yes and 6 is human.

 

Problems with dispensationalism. Worth your time to read brother.
http://www.chalcedon.edu/articles/0503/050301-2gentry.php

 

Why no sex? Scripture says there is no marrying, but is silent on the ability and opportunity for sex.

 

Of course there will be sex, how else will the earth repopulate itself after the Tribulation?

 

There is going to be one marriage and that will be with the Bridegroom and the Bride.

Selah~

 

There are two different kingdoms. The spiritual kingdom or kingdom of heaven that was rejected by Israel and inherited by the Church. The other is the physical kingdom, which is Christ's 1000 year reign on earth.

Christ's disciples were as confused as Christians are today, thinking the physical earthly kingdom was first offered to Israel. His disciples mistakenly thought Jesus had come to restore "the kingdom to Israel" (Acts 1:6), and "hoped that he was the one who was going to redeem Israel" (Lk. 24:20). They thought in terms of a tangible kingdom rather than a spiritual kingdom that is enternal and not visible (Lk. 17:20-21).

Israel's restoration in the future earthly kingdom was prophesied in the OT as occurring in the day of the Lord and not the Church Age before it. Israel was prophesied to inherit this kingdom, not the Church. Paul's instructions to the Church never associated it with Israel's earthly kingdom. Those who receive glorified bodies are never said to inherit the earthly kingdom.

Heavenly promises were given to the Church, they will be realized at the Rapture. Earthly promises were given to Israel, they will be realized at the Second Coming.

 

1. Not a clue, and it doctrinally doesn't matter. But I don't think it would be the same.
2. Not a clue, and it doctrinally doesn't matter. But I think probably.
3. Not a clue, and it doctrinally doesn't matter. But probably, I think.
4. Not a clue, and it doctrinally doesn't matter. But probably, I think.
5. Not a clue, and it doctrinally doesn't matter. But I don't see why not.
6. Not a clue, and it doctrinally doesn't matter. I think the term "glorified" is probably the best answer.

All these things are extremely speculative, and guesswork at best. There's no docrinal "absolutely yes/no/other" to your questions. All answers, including mine, are sheer speculation.

 

benz,

bmerr here. The only Scripture I can think of that mentions anything about Christ and a 1000 year reign is Rev 20:4, which reads,

"And I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgement was given unto them: and I saw the souls of them that were beheaded for the witness of Jesus, and for the word of God, and which had not worshipped the beast, neither his image, neither had received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands; and they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years."

What we need to do is see what is in the text.

- Someone is sitting on thrones and judgement is given to them.
- John saw the souls (not bodies) of them which had been beheaded for Christ.
- The souls of them which had been beheaded for Christ reigned with Christ a thousand years.

Now for what's not in the text.

- Any mention of the earth.
- Any mention of how long Christ would reign.

It's very important to keep in mind that Revelation is filled with symbolic and figurative language. Those who demand a literal interpretation for everything in Revelation end up with lots of bizarre ideas.

Christians are already a royal priesthood (1 Pet 2:9). The kingdom is already established on earth. People are already being translated into it (Col 1:13). It came into existence during the lifetime of some of the apostles (Matt 16:28). Christ was to receive it when He ascended back to the Ancient of Days (Dan 7:13-14). You're waiting for something that's already here.

In Christ,

bmerr

 

Benz --

When Christ left John tells us He PROMISED to return and take us to His Father's house (John 14:1-3).

Paul tells us that this event where Christ takes us and both living and dead saints are gathered together to meet the Lord in the air -- INCLUDES the resurrection of the "dead in Christ"!

John then shows us this event in living color in Rev 19-20 -- we see the coming of Christ "I will come again".. and we see the resurrection of the righteous called the "First resurrection" Rev 20:4-5.

That means that we spend 1000 years with Christ "in His Father's house" - in heaven.

In Rev 19 He shows us that the "rest" all the rest are killed by the sword that comes from His mouth. That means we have a planet full of dead people for 1000 years. "I looked and behold there was no man" says the Word.

In fact scripture speaks quite a bit about that time with the cities of all the earth destroyed - the sun and moon shrouded in darkness, dead bodies from one end of heaven to the earth and the feast of the birds on the dead of all the earth.

It is a time for Satan and his angels to be deprived of anyone to tempt - their work here is interrupted. The earth is a giant crypt.

In Christ,

Bob

 

He also owns the cattle on a 1000 hills. Why aren't we wondering about which 1000 hills He owns and which ones He doesn't?

So the above "1000" is figurative while the one in Revelation is literal??? Oh my, I'm agreeing with bmerr. It must be time for bed.

 

To All,

A rare case, indeed!

In Christ,

bmerr

 

To All,

bmerr here. I think the 1000 years of Rev 20:4 is merely symbolic for a long, undetermined amount of time. Divine commentary on this passage (Rev 20:4-15) can be found in John 5:25-29.

The resurrection of the righteous and the wicked will occur at the same time (John 5:28-29). No seven year separation. The resurrection of the dead in Christ, (and thus the dead outside of Christ as well), will preceed (not follow) the catching away of those who are alive and remain at the coming of Christ (1 Thes 4:15-17).

Don't most of the "rapture" theories demand that the living be taken first? Scripture says the opposite. Something to think about, huh?

In Christ,

bmerr

 

To All,

bmerr here. Bear with me a minute, please. The text under consideration is tricky, to say the least, and it deserves our careful attention. For the record, I'd like to say that I do not have it "all figured out". However, I believe that many have been convinced of a doctrine that simply is not taught in Scripture. I intend no slight toward those who may be among this number, nor toward those who have taught this doctrine, having been convinced of it themselves.

With this in mind, and with the full assurance that God has given us a Book that we can understand, if we will, I'd like to notice a few things.

There are some things stated, and some things implied in Rev 20:4-15. Things stated include:

- a first resurrection (20:5)
- a second death (20:14)

Things implied include:

- a second resurrection
- a first death

Death is always a separation in the Bible. Either separation of the spirit from the body (James 2:26), separation of man from God due to personal sin (Eph 2:1; Col 2:13), or the final separation of man from God at the Judgement (Rev 20:14-15).

IMO, the implied first death is the separation of man from God due to personal sin. Here's why.

In John 5:25, Jesus said,

"Verily, verily, I say unto you, The hour is coming, and now is, when the dead shall hear the voice of the Son of God: and they that hear shall live."

Obviously, a dead body cannot hear anything, right? I don't believe this is a reference to the resurrection of the dead, because Jesus speaks about that later (5:28-29).

The walking dead (in sin) who heard the voice (words) of the Son of God, both Personally, and through His apostles, would live. Of course we all understand that to hear in this context is to hear and believe/obey.

Those who were restored to fellowship with God through their obedience to the gospel would undergo a likeness of Christ's resurrection as they emerged from the watery grave of baptism (Rom 6:3-5).

I think it reasonable to identify this as the stated first resurrection in Rev 20:4-5.

Jesus' words (John 5:28-29) concerning "all that are in the graves" (dead bodies) coming forth refer to the resurrection of the righteous and the unrighteous at His 2nd coming.

If this is the case, (and it may not be), it would break down like this:

- first death - separation from God due to personal sin

- first resurrection - returned to friendship with God through obedience to the gospel

- second resurrection - righteous and unrighteous at the 2nd coming

- second death - separation of the wicked from God to the lake of fire

The thousand years would be the NT age, of which we are a part, Christians being a royal priesthood (1 Pet 2:9), or "...priests of God and of Christ...reign[ing] with him a thousand years" (Rev 20:6).

Those are my thoughts on it. Your comments are welcome. I appreciate your consideration.

In Christ,

bmerr

 

His reign began 2000 years ago.

 

bmerr here. Exactly. It began when He ascended back to His Father and received His kingdom (Dan 7:13-14). He established it on earth on Pentecost of Acts 2, when the kingdom came with power. What good is a king without a kingdom over which to rule?

In Christ,

bmerr

 

Revelation 20 4And I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment was given unto them: and I saw the souls of them that were beheaded for the witness of Jesus, and for the word of God, and which had not worshipped the beast, neither his image, neither had received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands; and they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years.

The thousand years takes place after the beast attempts to force all to worship the image to the first beast. This is obvious, because those who would not worship the beast, or receive it's mark, are there with Christ for the thousand years. As is apparent, this thousand years takes place after the tribulation, which is brought on by the beast.

Bye for now. Y. b. in C. Keith

 

The Triune God has ONE AND ONLY
ONE kingdom? I don't think so.

1. The Kingdom of God (Holy Spirit) within you
who are real Christians

2. The temporal Kingdom of God (Messiah Jesus) -
the Millinnial Messanic Kingdom on Earth

3. The eternal Kingdom of God (the Father) -
the saints of all the ages.

 

Opinions, are just opinions. How about supplying some concrete scriptural evidence to the effect that there are three separate kingdoms of God.

Bye for now. Y. b. in C. Keith