Question for KJ only crowd

Discussion in 'Other Christian Denominations' started by prophecynut, Jun 9, 2005.

  1. prophecynut

    prophecynut
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    Quoting Daniel 2:47 from the oldest KJV I have published in 1961 reads:

    "the king answered unto Daniel, and said, 'Of a truth it is , that your God is a God of gods, and a Lord of kings, and a revealer of secrets, seeing thou couldest reveal this secret'."

    Is the "inspired" 1611KJV the same?
     
  2. PASTOR MHG

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    (KJV-1611) "The King answered vnto Daniel and said, Of a trueth it is, that your God is a God of gods, and a Lord of Kings, and a reuealer of secrets, seeing thou couldest reueale this secret."
     
  3. prophecynut

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    Thank you kindly Pastor.

    Quoting Dn. 2:47 from the New World Translation of the Jahovah Witnesses:

    "The King was answering Daniel and saying 'Truly the God of YOU men is a God of gods and a Lord of kings and a Revealer of secrets, because you were able to reveal this secret'."

    There's seems to be something here that contradicts the truth, do you see it?
     
  4. tragic_pizza

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    [ June 10, 2005, 08:57 PM: Message edited by: dianetavegia ]
     
  5. tamborine lady

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    [​IMG]

    Since the king was speaking,(he really didn't know Daniels God) I can't see how what he said would make difference!!

    What did I miss??

    Peace,

    Tam
     
  6. prophecynut

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    Let me give you another verse from the NWT.

    John 1:1

    "In [the] beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a God."

    Same problem as in Dn. 2:47.
     
  7. tragic_pizza

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    [ June 10, 2005, 08:34 PM: Message edited by: dianetavegia ]
     
  8. prophecynut

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    I was looking for Zachary or Ed Edwards to show up and defend "God's true inspired word in English."

    You would think after 4 Centuries and the many changes to the 1611, this significant error would of been corrected. Our God is not "a" God among many, He is "the" God of all gods and "the" Lord of all Kings.

    Another imperfection of the KJV is found in Mt. 7:28 and other verses: "When Jesus had ended these sayings, the people were astonished at his doctrine." Doctrine only applies to the precepts established by Paul for the Church which did not exist during Christ's ministry. It was still a mystery at this time and not revealed until later.
     
  9. tragic_pizza

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    [ June 10, 2005, 08:37 PM: Message edited by: dianetavegia ]
     
  10. PastorGreg

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    Did you get laid off from your job and have more time on your hands than you know what to do with or something? Get real.
     
  11. tragic_pizza

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    [ June 10, 2005, 08:38 PM: Message edited by: dianetavegia ]
     
  12. tragic_pizza

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    [ June 10, 2005, 08:41 PM: Message edited by: dianetavegia ]
     
  13. tamborine lady

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    [​IMG]

    FYI (anyone who needs to know) the NIV is "disturbingly" similer to the New World Translation [Johovahs Witness Bible].

    Peace,

    Tam
     
  14. tragic_pizza

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    [ June 10, 2005, 08:40 PM: Message edited by: dianetavegia ]
     
  15. prophecynut

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    "Doctrine" in Mt. 7:28; Acts 2:42; John 18:19; and others of the KJV is from the Greek word didache .

    "Doctrine" in 1 Tim. 1:10; 4:16 of the KJV is from the Greek word didaskalia.

    Different Greek words yet same word "doctrine" is used, why?

    Doctrine is a collection or body of teachings that should not considered as such until those teachings are complete, which they were not in Mt. 7:28.
     
  16. prophecynut

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    The New Living Translation has "doctrine" in only one verse, 1 Timothy 1:3 and incorrectly reverts to "teaching" in 1:10 and 4:16, yet the same Greek word 'diadache' is used in all three verses.
     
  17. tragic_pizza

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    [ June 10, 2005, 08:53 PM: Message edited by: dianetavegia ]
     
  18. prophecynut

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    Doctrine is complete for the Church because the Bible is complete without further additions. Now if you belong to the Catholic Church, their doctrine continues to change and is not based on the Word.

    There is enough difference in the two Greek words to warrent different transliterated English words. Jesus was not teaching about the Church as Paul was, you should take into consideration this important contextual difference.
     
  19. tragic_pizza

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    [ June 10, 2005, 08:53 PM: Message edited by: dianetavegia ]
     
  20. prophecynut

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    Jesus said "I will build my church," not during his ministry.

    As to church doctrine, Paul was supreme. Jesus was not on earth during Paul's ministry.

    Church doctrine was still a mystery in Jesus' time as it was in the OT. The mystery of the church was given to Paul by revelation after Jesus ascended to the right hand of the Father.
     

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