There has been a number of threads covering topics such as the "command of baptism," the "sin of baptism being delayed," and even a question of a person who refuses baptism as being saved. In casual thinking, I recalled that those who hold Covenant Theological hold as a major view that the church existed in the OT. I was wondering how they dealt with the lack of baptism by immersion (or at least no mention of it until John the Baptizer), and how the Covenant Theological position might adjust their view on baptism as a command, delayed, or up to the believer to accept or refuse. That is, do the CT hold baptism as a command and if so, why is it not instituted along with passover in the time of Moses? Or, does the CT hold that baptism was done as ceremonial washings where one was to dip a number of times? Along with this question, do the CT hold that baptism by sorrow, and baptism by the Jews crossing the sea in dry land are examples of by folks being "immersed?"