I am in church last night and out pastor was speaking on the Past, Present and Future of Jesus. One of the verses was Hebrews 10:28. "So Christ was once offered to bear the sins of many; and unto them that look for him shall he appear the second time without sin, unto salvation." What jumped off the page at me was, "...appear the second time without sin," Now for sure I believe Jesus was sinless..., but he was in the flesh. We know the flesh represents sin by it's very existence. So, my question is, does the language, "...appear the second time without sin," which obviously refers to Him coming back in all His glory for the Saints but does it also indicate His previous sinful nature simply by having been in the flesh? Obviously, He did not sin as we do?