One reason I find reading this section of the board interesting is that questions get asked that frankly, you can’t ask in your local church without being doubted as a true born again Christian. I like to think of it as born again faith seeking reason as a person matures. So here is one I have often wondered about: There is a concept or rather ‘act’ I find in the New Testament that I seem to have trouble wrapping my mind around. Ok, it just bugs me. First understand where I am operating from. When Jesus died on the cross, rose again, commissioned his apostles, and ascended into heaven, etc, etc…at that point in time in history – I have been taught that all truth or fullnesss of truth and understanding had been given to the church/apostles. So that, even in my Baptist mindset, I believe they would know among other things – what salvation is. They understood grace and faith and their roles in saving people. They knew what baptism was, how to use, what it did and didn’t do, including water/spirit, etc. They would have known about predestination in all it’s forms, etc. IE, they had the fullness of Gospel truth, and understood it perfectly. The first Christians and Apostles were Jewish right? Why then, until Paul came along later, did the church not understand one of the most basic Christian truths of all time? That non-Jews, ie, Gentiles could also be saved via and Gospel? Why did they have to have the council at Jerusalem – and debate – and then officially decide and then send letter to the Gentiles that it was indeed for them and without keeping parts of the Law? How was this not already understood and settled well before this period? It bugs me that this was even a question that required discussion that far along in Acts. Am I crazy here asking this?