I was recently involved in a group discussion in which one of the members of the group noted that when salvation is mentioned in the New Testament, it is only connected with repentance when the audience hearing the message is Jewish, and that other places where it is mentioned in a gentile context, repentance is not mentioned, such as the Philippian jailer who asked Paul "What must I do to be saved?" and his response was not "Repent and believe," but simply "Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and you will be saved, and your household." I've always been taught that the New Testament must be taken wholistically, and that the rest of scripture should be interpreted in light of Christ's statement in Matt. 5:17, but it seems that this is a deliberate separation. Has anyone else heard this, or stumbled across it? Does the fact that repentance only being mentioned in a Jewish context mean that there is a reference there to the fact that, as a nation, in spite of their being chosen as the people through whom the savior would come, they must repent because they were also the ones who caused his crucifixion?