And any others who would care to join in. Knowing that Christ being raised from the dead dieth no more; death hath no more dominion over him. Romans 6:9 For as the Father hath life in himself; so hath he given to the Son to have life in himself; John 5:26 Can those two things be written concerning One to whom it would be impossible for them to have applied to? But of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, thou shalt not eat of it: for in the day that thou eatest thereof thou shalt surely die. Genesis 2:17 KJV and of the tree of knowledge of good and evil, thou dost not eat of it, for in the day of thine eating of it -- dying thou dost die.' YLT How is that in bold from two translations going to be atoned for? For that atonement, does it require shed blood, death, of one without sin and also for life to be given again to that one who died? Did not Spirit the God who is called the Father in John 4:23,24 create man in his image, taking from that man, a help meet for him, woman, for the very purpose of in the fullness of time the Son of God could be born of woman born under the law ( that is subject to death)?