There has been much discussion around here of how the NKJV (RV and others) have changed the readings of the KJV. Well, I was comparing Scriptures when I noticed that there were many differences between two passages: some only subtle, but some imply an alternate understanding. I did find that verses 1, 5, and 8 were exactly the same in both chapters. There was one word difference in verse 3: one has "and blasphemy" while the other has "and of blasphemy". There was also one discrepancy in verse 7: one has "and shall return" while the other has simply "and return". Should this be cause for alarm? But notice a few more differences at verse 2 below-- And he sent Eliakim, which [was] over the household, and Shebna the scribe, and the elders of the priests, covered with sackcloth, to Isaiah the prophet the son of Amoz. And he sent Eliakim, who [was] over the household, and Shebna the scribe, and the elders of the priests covered with sackcloth, unto Isaiah the prophet the son of Amoz. Maybe those are not such a big deal, you say? But isn't every word important? Now here is verse 4-- It may be the LORD thy God will hear all the words of Rabshakeh, whom the king of Assyria his master hath sent to reproach the living God; and will reprove the words which the LORD thy God hath heard: wherefore lift up [thy] prayer for the remnant that are left. It may be the LORD thy God will hear the words of Rabshakeh, whom the king of Assyria his master hath sent to reproach the living God, and will reprove the words which the LORD thy God hath heard: wherefore lift up [thy] prayer for the remnant that is left. And verse 9 -- And when he heard say of Tirhakah king of Ethiopia, Behold, he is come out to fight against thee: he sent messengers again unto Hezekiah, saying, And he heard say concerning Tirhakah king of Ethiopia, He is come forth to make war with thee. And when he heard [it], he sent messengers to Hezekiah, saying,Isn't there a distinction between fighting and war? Did the king send messengers once, or did he send them again? I checked the underlying Hebrew of both for verse 9 and found only one obvious word difference there. That one Hebrew word cannot explain the seven or more scattered English differences (and some punctuation). You needn't guess which versions are represented above because all the above verses are from the KJV: the top verse is from 2 Kings 19, and the verse below it is from Isaiah 37. This is a comparison of parallel passages within the KJV. Just the KJV, no other version. The Hebrew of both passages is nearly identical for over thirty verses in succession. Yet, the two KJV renderings have many more differences. I found it interesting that these chapters from two different books are almost identical (suggesting one was copied from the other). Are the differences in the Hebrew evidence of sloppy plagiarism then or defective transmission later? Which one is the original? Does that have any bearing on inspiration? If a satisfactory translation was established for the text in one place, why wouldn't the exact same English rendering apply in the other place?