Repentance baptism vs. Spirit Baptism

Good question! :thumbs:

In the OT, believers were baptized on account of their sins were forgiven -- the "baptism of repentance" Mt 3:11. That is half of the NT baptism!

NT baptism "in the name of Christ" REPRESENTS BOTH "of repentance" of sin and of new life in Christ -- the rebirth and indwelling of the Holy Spirit as you see in Acts 19.

They REPRESENT distinct "stages" of the same salvation. In the OT, the saved were only "justified" -- reconciled to God. But God had no kingdom yet to "give" them into (as John 10:29, etal.).

We are both "justified" and "sanctified" simultaneously upon belief and we CAN be given into Christ's spiritaul kingdom.

skypair

 

All believers should be physically baptized as testimony of repentance to God.

All new covenant believers will be spiritually baptized into the kingdom by the Spirit in the name of Christ at the moment of resurrection. These then will follow Christ in physical believer's baptism by emersion whereby they proclaim repentance AND RESURRECTION that occurred when they believed.

This, then, leaves some out -- like the ones in Acts 19 who were baptized on account of repentance but were not baptized spiritually "in Christ" and into His resurrection. That would tell me that the OT saints will be resurrected and baptized by the Spirit into the MK of Christ wherein they may be (though I don't find it) physically baptized again.

So for us: 1 spiritual baptism and one physical IF we follow Christ's example (He didn't need it when John baptized Him -- He did it by way of testimony, too.) I would get baptized as soon as I wanted to make Christ Lord of my life (hopefully immediately!). That's pretty much what it testifies to -- that you are raised to a new life by Christ.

skypair

 

That passage sounds as if water baptism had some bearing on receiving the Spirit. Interesting that the 1st question Paul asks them when he finds out they haven't received the Spirit is about their baptism, as if that was relevant.

 

I believe that is because in Jesus day baptism came out of what is called "Mikvah" in Judaism. A total immersion in water for cleansing, commitment and revitalization.

This kind of public immersion simply meant that you had first heard, understood and accepted the teaching of the one in whose name you were being baptised. A new beginning. There were many voices in Israel in those days.

HankD

 

But what about the thief on the cross? He wasn't baptized at all and Jesus promised that He'd see him in paradise?

 

Joh 1:31 And I knew him not: but that he should be made manifest to Israel, therefore am I come baptizing with water.

The Baptism of John was to MAKE MANIFEST TO ISRAEL, Jesus Christ, the Messiah.

Why do you think hardly any of the pharisees believed on Christ?

Luk 7:29 And all the people that heard him, and the publicans, justified God, being baptized with the baptism of John.
Luk 7:30 But the Pharisees and lawyers rejected the counsel of God against themselves, being not baptized of him.

The pharisees REJECTED the baptism, rejected the counsel of God and were unable to see who Jesus Christ was, because he was made manifest to Israel through John's Baptism of Repentance.

Not sure if that is on topic, but I hope it helps explain a few things. God bless

EDIT: Just to add,

Believers don't need to be baptised to have Christ manifest to them. We are saved. We are baptised to show as a testimony our death, burial and resurrection with Him. It is different to John's Baptism, but I think someone said that before.
In Jesus name, my precious Saviour
Luke

 

He will be "baptized with the Spirit," and maybe in water, in the MK.

"That day" they would both meet in the upper part of sheol (Luke 16:22-26). On the 3rd day, "paradise" went to heaven in "captivity" to Christ (Eph 4:8)!

skypair