Romans 3:1 ¶ What advantage then hath the Jew? or what profit is there of circumcision? Bob would you agree to the following conclusions to Romans 3:1 1. Romans 3:1 PRECEDES Romans 3:4 2. Romans 3:1 is something about the "advantage" of being a jew and the "profit" of circumcision 3. Romans 3:1 infers that in some sense there is NO "advantage" in being a Jew or there AND no "profit" in circumcision. 4. Romans 3:1 is a senseless question unless Paul has just previously proven that in some sense there is no "advantage" of being a Jew and proven there is no "profit" in circumcision. 5. That Paul would had to previously demonstrate this before this question could be rationally and reasonably asked? 6. That previous to Romans 3:1 we should find the evidence presented by Paul why there is no "advantage" in being a Jew and why there is no "profit" in circumcision.