Featured Romans 5:12 - the only possible view

Verses 13-14 are given to reinforce the statement in verse 12 about how sin came into the world through one man. Your response offers no such reinforcement.

However, death between Adam and Moses explained by one man's sin of Genesus 2;17 provides reinforcement for verse 12 and the repetitious "by one man" in verses 17-19. Furthermore, the death of infants and all incapable of personal willful sin provides reinforcement that sin came into the world by one man's sin in verse 12.

If this is the reason then Paul is being irresponsible not to specfically say so as he is dealing specifically how sin and death came upon all men and yet he never mentiones your idea. What he gives as the reason is Adam's violation of Genesis 2:17 or by "one man's sin".

Adam was the appointed king over this world and with his violation of Genesus 2:17 both the animate and inaminate kingdom he ruled over was subjected to sin, death of animate creatures and first and second laws of thermodymics in inanimate things.

 

You are completely missing the point. He does in fact obligate INDIVIDUALS to do what He knows they are incapable of doing - keeping the Law without violation. That is the fact of scripture. He furthemore justly condemns them for their individual violation of His Law. My interpretation of Romans 5:12-19 is the only possible interpretation that can justify God demanding from individual fallen man what they are incapable of doing and yet condemning them as sinners.

Note the end reference point is Moses and so He is referring to LAW PUBLICLY REVEALED DIRECTLY FROM GOD TO MEN or else there is no point in making Moses the final reference point becuase LAW OF CONSCIENCE did not end with Moses. Genesis 2:17 and Exodus 20 are PUBLICLY REVEALED LAW directly from God to man. Furthermore, the fact that no public revealed law from God to man between Adam and Moses reinforces that sin and death entered the world by ONE MAN not many men many times as your position demands. If sin enters through offended conscience he could have said that but instead he repetitively gives the cause as the ACTION by "ONE MAN" not by many men and many sins as your doctrine demands.

If failure to eat of a certain tree or inability to obtain access to a certain tree were the cause then Romans 5:12 should have stated that was the real problem instead of the actions (rather than non-action) by "ONE MAN." If your idea was valid we should not have the repititous "by one man" from Romans 5:12 onward as the repeated explanation.

12 Why, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed on all men, for that all have sinned:
15 But not as the offense, so also is the free gift. For if through the offense of one many be dead, much more the grace of God, and the gift by grace, which is by one man, Jesus Christ, has abounded to many.
16 And not as it was by one that sinned, so is the gift: for the judgment was by one to condemnation, but the free gift is of many offenses to justification.
17 For if by one man’s offense death reigned by one; much more they which receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness shall reign in life by one, Jesus Christ.)
18 Therefore as by the offense of one judgment came on all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came on all men to justification of life.
19 For as by one man’s disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous.

The repetitious explanation for the cause of death, sin, condemnation, judgement is inexcusable if the real reason for death and sin is individual based rather than federal based.

If that were the case then Paul should have said so when he was explicitly dealing with the cause in Romans 5:12-19 rather than vainly and repititously repeating that the ACTION by "one man" was the cause. If that were the case then why stop at Moses since law of conscience is universal up to present time while the law of Moses has been abolished (Col. 2:14-16) as a covenant and that was what was established by Moses - Law covenant between God and Israel not between God and Men, so the making Moses the ending point does not support your theory. Moses is the next time in human history where God directly revealed law to men. The first time is in the garden in Genesis 2:17. That fact reinforces the argument that it was by ONE MAN sin and death came into the world and is "passed" on to his progenity through natural generation.

Adam's entire kingdom including the INAMINATE part was directly affected by his sin.

 

Those who oppose my interpretation of Romans have one serious problem that characterizes all their theories. Romans 5:12, 17-19 explicitly traces the entrance and passage of sin and death to men to be the ACTION by ONE MAN rather than individual actions or indivdual violation of conscience, or lack of ability by individuals to access the tree of life, or ect.

12 Why, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed on all men, for that all have sinned:
15 But not as the offense, so also is the free gift. For if through the offense of one many be dead, much more the grace of God, and the gift by grace, which is by one man, Jesus Christ, has abounded to many.
16 And not as it was by one that sinned, so is the gift: for the judgment was by one to condemnation, but the free gift is of many offenses to justification.
17 For if by one man’s offense death reigned by one; much more they which receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness shall reign in life by one, Jesus Christ.)
18 Therefore as by the offense of one judgment came on all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came on all men to justification of life.
19 For as by one man’s disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous.

If sin, death, judgement is the direct and immediate result of individual violation of conscience, or their own sins, or failure to access the tree of life then it is inexcusable that Paul attributes such things repeatedly due to "one man's disobedience" WITHOUT SO MUCH AS EVEN THE MENTION OF ANY OF THESE THINGS THAT MY OPPONENTS CLAIM TO BE THE REAL CAUSE OF DEATH, SIN AND JUDGEMENT IN THE LIVES OF INDIVIDUALS.

 

Why is it that Paul does not even mention any of the reasons Arminians give but repetitously repeats over and over that it is the ACTION of disobedience BY ONE MAN that is the cause of the condemnation, death and judgement of MANY rather than individual sins of many or lack of access to the tree of life by many, etc.??????

Secondly, in the summary verse (Rom. 5:12) which is further defended and expanded (Rom. 5:13-19) it states in the Aorist tense that all men have already sinned as a completed action and then reinforces this by explicitly stating the death and condemnation OF MANY is not due to the Sins plural of many BUTto the singular sin of ONE MAN which directly contradicts every reason you give!!!!!

Thirdly, my interpretation is the only possible basis to justify God for demanding of fallen man what He knew and clearly stated they were unable to do and yet condemn them as sinners - coming short of what the law demands. The only possible grounds for justly condemning those unable to keep an obligation is if they already freely forfeited that ability "BY ONE MAN" wherein existed and consisted the whole human nature acting in unison in ONE MAN freely forfeiting the prefallen state of ability to obey God by sin thus falling into A STATE OF TOTAL INABILITY and therefore responsible for their inability to keep God's Law.

Then it is completely inexcusable that Paul would place the blame on ONE MAN'S DISOBEDIENCE for the sins of many, the death of many and the condemenation of many and NOT EVEN MENTION YOUR REASONS not even once! That makes no sense at all if your reasons are the real reasons for individual death. Your reasons cannot explain the death of infants and those mentally incapable why they should be subject to death but the existence of the total human nature consisting in, and acting in one man does explain this (Rom. 5:12,14b). The death of men in the distinct time period between Adam and Moses does not aid the law of conscience theory as conscience exists both before and after the Mosaic law covenant but it does support that death of indivduals must be traced to the violation of the public law given directly from God to men in Genesis 2:17 as the only other publicly delivered law directly given from God to men is Exodus 20.

The weakness of your position is that Paul NEVER EVEN MENTIONS ANY OF YOUR REASONS as the cause of sin, death and judgement of INDIVIDUALS but repetitively claims such is the results of ONE MANS ACTION rather than many men's actions.