..... of the... ".... LORD." (Lamentations 3:26b) ".... Jews." (John 4:22b) So, which is it? Is it "of the LORD," or is it "of the Jews? IMHO, I tend to believe it's "of the LORD rather than "of the Jews," but since Jesus Himself told the Samaritan woman at the well that "salvation is "of the Jews," He can't be wrong since He is the very embodiment of Truth (John 14:6). Please help me to understand which one of these statements is correct. Thank you.