In the thread entitled "How important is the KJV" I would agree that there are no specific verses that support making exclusive only claims for any one translation whether KJV or any modern English translation. The Word of God is not bound by any language, any one translation, or any other barrier (2 Tim. 2:9). Therefore, it is definitely unscriptural to attempt to bind God's Word and limit it to one translation, especially one of the seventeenth century. The KJV-only view is not contained in God's Word in Hebrew and Greek; therefore, it cannot logically be contained in God's Word translated into English, Spanish, or other languages. I would disagree with your comments if you are suggesting that there are no scriptural principles or truths that conflict with a KJV-only view. I think that there are verses that disagree with or conflict with typical reasoning used for a KJV-only view. Are believers commanded to obey 100% the interpretations of the KJV translators or are they to search and study the Scriptures and obey them (John 5:39, Acts 17:11, 2 Tim. 2:15)? God's Word is the only complete and final authority for the believer, for the Church of England translators of the KJV do not act as mediators and expert interpreters between the believer and God (1 Tim. 2:5, John 16:13, 1 John 2:27, Heb. 4:16). Every believer has access to God (Eph. 2:18, Heb. 4:14-16, Heb. 10:19-22). The Lord Jesus Christ did not say that He would give understanding of the Scriptures only to a group of men in 1611 (2 Tim. 2:7, 1 John 5:20). "Thus saith the Church of England translators of the KJV" in words whose meaning has changed since 1611 is not more important than reading and proclaiming God's Word in "words easy to be understood" (1 Cor. 14:8-9). These verses are not in agreement with some of the claims of the KJV-only view. Should believers make the Word of God of no effect through the warmed-over tradition of Roman Catholics which seems to bind God's Word to a single translation (Mark 7:13, 2 Tim. 2:9)? Believers should not act as those who have no understanding (Ps. 32:9). Believers have the spiritual understanding or “the mind of Christ” to the extent that they can understand or interpret the Scriptures for themselves (1 Cor. 2:14-16, 1 John 2:20, 27). Should believers add the opinions and rules of KJV-only advocates to God's Word (Rev. 22:18, Deut. 12:32)? Should it be implied that the word of God came out from only the KJV translators or that it came only unto those who speak English (1 Cor. 14:36)? God made translators different from each other (1 Cor. 4:7). The knowledge of all uninspired translators is partial, incomplete, and imperfect (1 Cor. 13:12). A translation did not bear the root (Rom. 11:18). I also think that there are verses that support the position that the Scriptures in the original languages should be considered the greater authority or standard for the trying or evaluating of all translations or the position that no one translation should be made the final authority or greater authority over the preserved Scriptures in the original languages.