Several errors in inspired KJV?

Discussion in 'Bible Versions/Translations' started by Paul33, Aug 17, 2006.

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  1. Paul33

    Paul33
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    It is being argued that the KJV is the inspired, inerrant Word of God preserved in English. If so, what am I to make of the following errors?

    1. 2 Chronicles 22:2 - Jehoahaz died at age 40, his son Ahaziah begins to reign at the age of 42. This verse has Jehoahaz giving birth to a son two years before he himself was born! How can this be?

    2. 2 Samuel 6:23 and 2 Samuel 21:8 - The first verse teaches that Michal had no children. The second verse teaches that Michal has five sons. These verses teach that Micahl who had no children has five sons. How can this be?

    3. 2 Chronicles 36:9 and 2 Kings 24:8 - The first verse says that Jehoiachin was eight years old when he began to reign. The second verse says that he was 18 years old when he began to reign. These verses teach that Jehoiachin was both eight and 18 when he began to reign as king. How can this be?

    Could someone please tell me how the KJV - the inspired, inerrant Word of God in English - can contain these errors? How is this possible?
     
  2. Burrito Breath

    Burrito Breath
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    U doan unnerstan

    Paul; thirty quatro

    U jes doan unnerstan Paulo! There b no problemo with King Jamez Only (but Spanglish too o course) that not be fixed by reading the original King Jamez only man u scrip.

    If you can't trust King Jamez AND Jack Hyles; who u gonna trust?
     
  3. Anti-Alexandrian

    Anti-Alexandrian
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    The only error is in the mind of the person that fed you that line...

    All of the "errors" you speak of have been answered already AD NAUSEAM.
    Do a little reasearch before you cut and paste.
     
  4. Chris L.

    Chris L.
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    Is your issue with the KJV, or just supposed Bible contradictions in general? Do modern versions correct these supposed errors? Are you an actual believer or just someone attempting to cast doubt on the word of God?

    To the babes in Christ and lay people here, these issues have been addressed before and are nothing new.
     
  5. Paul33

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    If the original manuscripts only are inspired and inerrant, then I have no problem understanding these "errors" in the KJV as being transcription errors.

    But if the KJV itself is inspired and without error, then what am I supposed to do with these discrepancies? Clearly, there is a problem with these texts. Can someone help me out without calling me names?
     
  6. Askjo

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    No errors in the KJV!!! Do you fail to solve these problems there?

    Nothing wrong with the KJV - because the KJV has no errors. You see some problems with modern versions because I found they can't solve these problems.

    [snipped - this thread is about the KJV not the NIV]
     
    #6 Askjo, Aug 17, 2006
    Last edited by a moderator: Aug 18, 2006
  7. Askjo

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    Amen!:thumbs:
     
  8. tinytim

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    Wow, that was brilliant... a very good tactical move...
    It's called diverting attention from the real issue.
    But you never answered his question..
    You just proved that the MVs are as good as the KJV... they all can be improved.
     
  9. Chris L.

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    ...but we no longer have the original manuscripts. If the original message got garbeled along the way, than God did not preserve his word. This opens up a whole can of worms. What other parts of scripture did the translators screw up? Hath God REALLY said...etc.

    I'm not trying to ridicule you or call you names, I'm just trying to figure out where you're coming from. Is your main problem with the claims people make about the KJV, or is it with supposed Bible contradictions in general? Because if I understand right (someone correct me here if I'm wrong), the modern versions also have some of the same so-called "problems".

    I'll give you the benefit of the doubt and assume you are a believer and a Christian. You say "Clearly, there is a problem with these texts". Is it really that clear? Have you searched for the answers to the "problems" and were left wanting? Do you believe that the entire Bible is the word of God?
     
    #9 Chris L., Aug 17, 2006
    Last edited by a moderator: Aug 17, 2006
  10. Paul33

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    ASKJO,

    No, let's look at the discrepancies in the KJV. This thread is about "errors" in the KJV, not the NIV.

    Please answer an honest inquiry. You stated that there are no errors in the KJV. Please tell me how to reconcile the Scriptures that I posted in the opening thread.
     
  11. Paul33

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    Hi Chris,

    I am a believer and I believe in the inerrancy of Scripture. The historic position on inerrancy is that the original manuscripts are inerrant. If that is the case, then I understand the discrepancies in the KJV to be scribal errors, etc.

    But if the KJV itself is without error, then I'm stumped. This is an honest inquiry. What do I do with the above mentioned references? How do I reconcile them?
     
  12. Askjo

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    He answers them FIRST then I will answer his questions.
     
  13. Paul33

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    ASKJO,

    I'm deeply disappointed in your response. If you want to start a thread on the errors of the NIV, I would encourage you to do so. And if I feel compelled, I can answer your question there.

    But this is a thread on the KJV. I will ask you and any others to help me out here. If the KJV is without error, how do I reconcile the discrepancies shown above?

    If you have an answer to this dilemma, I trust that you will share it with me. I await your resolution to the problems presented in these verses.

    I really don't know how Michal could have no children but have five sons.

    Nor do I understand how a king could be both eight and 18 at the same time.

    And I'm very perplexed at how a son could be born two years before his father was born.

    Please help me out.
     
  14. Askjo

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    Forget the NIV! I will answer your questions on the KJV on next post.
     
    #14 Askjo, Aug 17, 2006
    Last edited by a moderator: Aug 17, 2006
  15. Chris L.

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    Paul33, why are you singling out the KJV for scrutiny? You would simply reconcile those supposed errors in the KJV the same way you would reconcile them with any other version. Go check out some websites on apologetics. These same "errors" are found in the MV's as well if I'm not mistaken. It's up to you to whether you believe them to be errors or not.
     
  16. tinytim

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    Does the underlying text of the KJV also have these mistakes?
    If so something, somewhere, in the transitional line from the originals to the underlying text of the KJV got distorted.

    If the underlying text does not have these mistakes, then the KJV translators made them.

    And it doesn't matter if we don't have the originals... we have enough manuscripts that God preserved for us to piece together what the originals said. That is called textual criticism.

    I thank God for scholars that have devoted their lives to God to see that we have accurate translations.
     
  17. MatthewDiscipleOfGod

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    Paul33, I wish I knew my Hebrew. If I'm not mistaken though the NIV and the KJV use pretty much the same manuscripts for the old testament. From what I understand all the NIV and some other translations do is put different words in even though the manuscripts don't have these words. If someone has more infomation on this please let me know.
     
  18. Paul33

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    Hi Chris,

    The proponents of the Modern Translations (NIV, NASV, ESV) are not claiming that their translations are "without error."

    Some proponents of the KJV are claiming that it is the inspired, inerrant, preserved Word of God in English. If it is, I need help in figuring out how to reconcile the discrepancies I have posted above.
     
  19. Paul33

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    Hi Tim,

    On another thread I pose a question about the underlying Hebrew text.

    The MT is very different from the LXX in Romans 3:10-18. Paul apparently quotes from the LXX, unless he had a Hebrew text that he quoted from. In either case, the LXX and the Hebrew text behind it is very different than the MT in Psalm 14:1-3.

    I would invite your response to this question in the other thread.

    Thanks.
     
  20. Paul33

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    Correct. The modern translations base their OT translation on the MT. On another thread I ask a question about this. Please check it out and respond if you can. I'm perplexed as to why the MT is followed in the OT when the NT writers' quotations of the OT don't seem to follow the readings of the MT.

    When it comes to the NT, the modern translations don't follow the TR. They use additional manuscripts. Why isn't this happening with the MT? Why aren't modern translations using the LXX and other manuscripts besides the MT?
     
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