Son Of People ?!

Discussion in 'Bible Versions/Translations' started by Rippon, May 29, 2007.

  1. Rippon

    Rippon
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    Yesterday a friend and I were discussing Bible translations ( imagine that ! ) . When I brought up the TNIV he instantly said that it was a blasphemous production . I asked him why and he said that the TNIV does not use the words "Son of Man " , instead it has " Son of people " or similiar phraselogy . I told him that he was mistaken , that the TNIV does indeed keep the form of words " Son of Man " . He told me to verify that -- that I would be in for a big surprise . I already knew that my friend was wrong ( I had investigated this issue and others regarding translational issues -- from a laymen's perspective ) .

    This morning I went through a number of passages in Matthew and "Son of Man " was right there in the text -- over and over again . I went especially to Daniel 7:13 and the Matthew passage that is related to it -- Matt. 8:20 ( and 20 other matthew passages ) .

    Some against the TNIV maintain that they know the issues regarding this translation . Yet they do not own the translation . They depend on 2nd and third hand info . Even at this late date the TNIV has been doing rather well despite the barrage of criticism over the last number of years as well as having to endure such a large boycott . Many remain as clueless as ever . Misinformation continues to be pumped out and the Christian public is duped once again . Providentially there are a growing number of folks who have now taken the time to buy one for themselves and have come to the conclusion : " What has all the fuss been about ? It's a solid translation . "
    But , getting back to the OP , though the TNIV has the terminology " Son of Man " just as many times as the NIV has it -- is that form of words the most accurate rendering ? Is Christ's maleness being emphasized in the original , or His humanness ? Would it be so bad to have "Son of Mankind " or "Son of Humanity" ? Wouldn't that be closer to the intent of the original authors ?
     
  2. Hope of Glory

    Hope of Glory
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    [Off topic, inflammatory comments deleted. We are discussing the translation of a phrase, not a group of people]]
    "Son of Mankind" would be quite acceptable.
     
    #2 Hope of Glory, May 29, 2007
    Last edited by a moderator: May 30, 2007
  3. mcdirector

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    Doncha ever just want to say: You're right! That's exactly why I use it!

    mwhahahahahahaha
     
  4. Jerome

    Jerome
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    Wayne Grudem, The TNIV and the Gender-Neutral Bible Controvery, 2004, p. 3:

    "NIV (1984) Hebrews 2:6 What is man that you are mindful of him, the son of man that you care for him?
    TNIV (2002) What are mere mortals that you are mindful of them, human beings that you care for them?
    The TNIV needlessly obscures the possible connection of this verse with Jesus, who often called Himself "the Son of Man.""
     
  5. Rippon

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    Is Hebrews 2:6 which refers to Psalm 8:4 Messianic ? Isn't it showing the contrast between humans and God ? There are a number of scholars who do not believe that the above references apply to Christ .

    As a follow-up : Isn't the reference in Hebrews 2:6 saying IOW , that humanity is weak and fragile but God on the other hand , and in distinct contrast, is all-powerful ? In the TNIV , I found out , Christ refers to Himself as the Son of Man 79 times . Ezekiel is called son of man by God more than 90 times .
     
    #5 Rippon, May 30, 2007
    Last edited by a moderator: May 30, 2007

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