One of my favorite parables Jesus told is commonly called the story of 'The Prodigal Son' (starting at Luke 15:11, KJV) -- And he said, A certain man had two sons:The word "sons" in Greek is a plural form of huios (Strong's #5207). The KJV and all English Bibles (to my knowledge) properly translate huios in this chapter as "son": verses 11, 13, 19, 21 (twice), 24, 25, and 30. However, in verse 31 there is a different Greek word: it is teknon (Strong's #5043) -- And he said unto him, Son, thou art ever with me, and all that I have is thine.The KJV renders it "son" (21 times), but predominantly rendering it "child" (77 of 99 total occurrences). Nearly all English Bibles have "Son" here, although some very literal versions (like Young and Darby) do have "Child". It seems to me that the Holy Spirit inspired Luke to write a different word after the uninterrupted succession of huios 8 times for some reason. But this cannot be seen in most English versions. Of course, the preceding context tells us that person addressed is this man's male child (therefore "son" is certainly an acceptable term for the relationship). And generally the substitution of "son" for teknon seems fair and accurate. However, there are some other verses that the masculine suggestion seems completely unnecessary and unwarranted: like perhaps in Matthew 21:28, Luke 2:48, John 1:12, I Corinthians 4:14, Philippians 2:15, and I John 3:1&2. Could there be a better translation for teknon than "son" at Luke 15:31? Would "child" be an acceptable translation here? Wouldn't "child", or "children" as the case may be, be more literal (and less risky) in most of these verses?