Sovereignity of God

Actually, the bigger problem etymology speaking is foreknow = fore love.

The answer to your question is chlorophyll

 

BTW, I do agree that this appears to be an antimony.

 

That part is easy...

WHY???
Why was it before they had DONE ANYTHING????

You mean it is not based on what they did???

Nope...

Then why?? What was election based on?

Etymology speaking...

Fore = beforehand.

Know = Love..

Together...what is the meaning of foreknow?

Loved beforehand

*******

Back to Romans 9....look two verses down...

13 As it is written, “Jacob I loved, but Esau I hated.”

That is the point...right?

Loved beforehand

 

OH yeah, forgot to answer that question about the grass. Thanks webdog.

C55H72O5N4Mg C55H70O6N4Mg C35H30O5N4Mg C35H28O5N4Mg
C54H70O6N4Mg C55H70O6N4Mg

 

QF....

Of course he could have, but he did not.

But the point again...Does it change anything? I say NO.

again...why is the grass green? Did God have anything to do with it?

 

Many Christians are shocked when they read Romans 9:13: “Just as it is written: ‘Jacob I loved, but Esau I hated.’” Since when does the God of love hate people? This verse, coupled with the rest of Romans 9, has led many to believe that God does not love all people, at least with regard to their eternal salvation. He seems to arbitrarily choose some people for salvation and some people for damnation. But must we interpret this verse in that way?

I think the answer is “no.” A more careful reading of this passage indicates that the subject is not individual salvation, but Israel’s national role in redemptive history.

Paul is actually quoting from Mal. 1:2-3, and a reading of those verses in the context of Malachi’s book clearly indicates that Malachi is using the word “Jacob” to refer to the nation of Israel and the word “Esau” to refer to the nation of Edom.

This makes perfect sense because Romans 9, 10, and 11 are all about national Israel and her role in redemptive history. Romans 9 refers to Israel’s past, Romans 10 refers to her present, and Romans 11 refers to her future.

It is a serious exegetical mistake to interpret Romans 9 to be referring to individuals’ salvation. According to Norman Geisler, “the election of the nation was temporal, not eternal; that is, Israel was chosen as a national channel through which the eternal blessing of salvation through Christ would come to all people (cf. Gen. 12:1–3; Rom. 9:4–5). Not every individual in Israel was elected to be saved (9:6).”

God works through nations to accomplish his will, just as he works through individuals. Just because Israel was the chosen nation to bring forth the Messiah did not mean that every Israelite would be individually saved. Individual salvati0n has never been and will never be based on a person’s nationality. Paul is talking about the nation of Israel in Romans 9, not individual salvation.

Finally, it is also important to explain that the word used for “hate” in Malachi 1 is a Hebrew idiom which actually means to “love less.” Norman Geisler explains: “This is evident from Genesis 29:30: The phrase ‘loved Rachel more than Leah’ is used as the equivalent of ‘Leah was hated’ (cf. also Matt. 10:37).”

Quoted from Bill Pratt (Blog of "Tough Questions Answered"

 

Give that man a cigar! :thumbsup:

 

Foreknowledge is not an act of God (love beforehand), it is an attribute. This attribute can be found in Psalm 139...

O Lord, you have searched me and known me!
2 You know when I sit down and when I rise up;
you discern my thoughts from afar.
3 You search out my path and my lying down
and are acquainted with all my ways.
4 Even before a word is on my tongue,
behold, O Lord, you know it altogether.
5 You hem me in, behind and before,
and lay your hand upon me.
6 Such knowledge is too wonderful for me;
it is high; I cannot attain it.

 

Then you have a larger problem. Which we will get to later.

For now, lets look at a few things.

1st Paul gives us the meaning in the text. The NT gives light to the Old. Let me remind you here of another passage to prove this point.

Who said these words? Who wrote them?

David wrote them, but it is clear from the NT that he was talking about Christ on the cross.


again...Malachiwrote the words....so what do they mean?

Paul tells us in the NT.

Now does it mean hate or love less?

Well less look at the context.

There is a list of black and whites..

we have one son over the other son.

we have compassion over no compassion.


we have mercy over no mercy


we have honor over dishonor.


we have love over...????

 

:wavey: Good one.

 

I know Kind of puts the linear understanding to rest, particularly when you look at the rest of the text :thumbsup:

For whom he did foreknow, he also did predestinate to be conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brethren."

30. "Moreover, whom he did predestinate, them he also called: and whom he called, them he also justified: and whom he justified, them he also glorified."

Notice "glorified" is also listed as past tense, and yet it is a future event for us. Strange, huh?

Clearly it is speaking of an attribute.

 

Yes....if only

If only it was the same WORD.
:laugh:

 

You do understand psa is in Hebrew for the most part.

 

Ah yes, like the idea of the Trinity without the word...

See you are starting to get it

 

Not even remotely relevant to "glorified" being past tense in the greek, nor the idea being found both in the OT and NT.

 

web....

You built a case on ANOTHER word from HEBREW that has ANOTHER MEANING

That is what is NOT relevant.

 

Which word? I posted a portion of the Psalm to prove my notion. I wasn't focused on any one word in the Psalm, but the attribute of God's foreknowledge found within.