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Studying the Bible

Discussion in '2004 Archive' started by Craigbythesea, Mar 4, 2004.

  1. michelle

    michelle New Member

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    Peace and love to you all in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour!

    I have read in many places, that the modern versions, have corrected their texts in later versions. Is this the reason they are now the same? I mean, aren't there older editions of the modern versions that had omitted many of the verses having to do with blood?

    love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
    michelle
     
  2. Pastor Larry

    Pastor Larry <b>Moderator</b>
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    This is exactly what the KJV did ... many times.
     
  3. Pastor Larry

    Pastor Larry <b>Moderator</b>
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  4. Precepts

    Precepts New Member

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    That's a lie.
     
  5. Precepts

    Precepts New Member

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    You can't have fidelity w/o harmony.
     
  6. tinytim

    tinytim <img src =/tim2.jpg>

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    No, Michelle, they have always been the same. They never omitted the blood. That is just one lie that has been told to slander MVs.
    There are others. Like the KJV has never been copyrighted. It has been. Read some history of the printing of the KJV.

    The KJVO is nothing more than a good conspiracy story. You know, like the gov. hiding UFOs and such.
     
  7. Craigbythesea

    Craigbythesea Active Member

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    Tim is right. [​IMG] But don't take either his or my word for it. Check it out for yourself. :cool: It will take a little bit of work, but there are a whole lot of liars out there and many of them have a multitude of followers. You will never know the truth for sure unless you check it out for yourself. :cool: I have found some thrift stores to be great places to get early copies of the “modern versions” without getting a second mortgage on my house. :eek:
     
  8. gb93433

    gb93433 Active Member
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    A Greek and Hebrew concordance tied to extrabiblical documents sure helps too. It helps one to better understand how that word was used in the secular world at that time.

    A strongs concordance is much like using a dictionary for a person who is just beginning to read.
     
  9. michelle

    michelle New Member

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    Peace and love to you all in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour!

    Maybe I am misunderstanding, but it seems as though many here believe that for 400 years the english speaking churches that have used the KJV have not had the whole counsel of God, and a corrupt one at that? I am sorry, but this is not what God has promised. I believe God. I believe the spiritual fruits that have been produced from decades of christian churches that have used the KJV, and the revivals that came from them. I will not doubt God's word.

    love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
    michelle
     
  10. Craigbythesea

    Craigbythesea Active Member

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    ". . .this is not what God has promised."

    Before I made such a statement as this I would read the book upon which I was basing the statement. I certainly would not rely on a translation of the book.

    The KJO sect talks and talks and talks about how much they love the Bible, but I have never yet met one who took the time to learn how to read it. But oddly enough, I have met very many of them who took the time to criticize those who had learned how to read the Bible. Why is this so? Psychologists have the word for it—transference, the phenomenon by which the patient projects certain feelings or emotions onto the therapist or other persons. In this case, guilt. Having not read the Bible themselves, they project their feeling of guilt onto those who have. If I had that problem, I would seek out professional help immediately!
     
  11. Precepts

    Precepts New Member

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    No, Michelle, they have always been the same. They never omitted the blood. That is just one lie that has been told to slander MVs.
    There are others. Like the KJV has never been copyrighted. It has been. Read some history of the printing of the KJV.

    The KJVO is nothing more than a good conspiracy story. You know, like the gov. hiding UFOs and such.
    </font>[/QUOTE]Tiny, you need to learn the difference between "printer's rights" and a copy write. The KJB "printer's" maintained the "right" for their use of the printing technique used to print the Bible. A copy write maintains the individual's right to claim authenticity as the sole creator of the content of his document as original. The KJB has no such copywrite, the printers have only the printer's rights that hold their type face as original and authentic, not the content of what they printed.

    Learn something, man! Don't continue in such a downward path. Step back up to reality.
     
  12. TC

    TC Active Member
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    So the KJV by itself isn't enough? You need to have sources by fallible men besides? </font>[/QUOTE]So, tc, did you learn anything from a dictionary or have you always been so.... </font>[/QUOTE]Sure, but I'm not the one putting down the scholarship of one person while lifting up the scholarship of another.
     
  13. Pastor Larry

    Pastor Larry <b>Moderator</b>
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    Sure you can ... Two things do not have to be in harmony to be true. The point of translation is to take the words on the page and communicate them in the receptor language. It is not the point of translation to adjust the words to fit what we think they should say. A translator translates; he does not concern himself with harmony. The text was harmonious when God gave it. It does not need your help and he did not give you permission to change it.

    As you told someone above, "Learn something man. Don't continue on this downward path." This is so simple and you keep missing it.
     
  14. TC

    TC Active Member
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    I have a 1920 printing of the ASV and it reads the same as I reported. Only the one verse where there is a variation in manuscripts, is the only "omission" of blood.
     
  15. Precepts

    Precepts New Member

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    Sure you can ... Two things do not have to be in harmony to be true. The point of translation is to take the words on the page and communicate them in the receptor language. It is not the point of translation to adjust the words to fit what we think they should say. A translator translates; he does not concern himself with harmony. The text was harmonious when God gave it. It does not need your help and he did not give you permission to change it.

    As you told someone above, "Learn something man. Don't continue on this downward path." This is so simple and you keep missing it.
    </font>[/QUOTE]You misundertand the definiton of fidelity then, those things that are true are in comparison to each other . Harmony is accomplished when their understandinfg is true to the context, that is true fidelity, infideltiy is when there is question which was introduced by the "insurrection" of the word elpis to mean ONLY hope and never faith. What you are doing is demanding the English to meet the Greek rules of grammar, that is not possible, they are not harmonious in that respect and cannot be, they are two different languages controlled by different sets of grammatical rules. "Faith" fits the context better than "hope" does in it's general understanding, you will NEVER get around the fidelity of that.
     
  16. michelle

    michelle New Member

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    Peace and love to you all in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour!


    TC quoted:
    --------------------------------------------------
    I have a 1920 printing of the ASV and it reads the same as I reported. Only the one verse where there is a variation in manuscripts, is the only "omission" of blood.
    --------------------------------------------------

    TC,

    What about the other versions? Aren't there other versions that have ommitted the word "blood" and corrected it in later versions?

    love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
    michelle
     
  17. Pastor Larry

    Pastor Larry <b>Moderator</b>
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    No I don't. YOu are making stuff up. The Greek text says "elpis" and it is not in harmony (i.e, not true when compared to) the KJV. That's simple.

    The purpose of a translation is to translate the text, not to change it to harmonize it. That is how many errors got introduced in the Greek mss ... scribes tried to harmonize (cf. Col 1:14). You are totally mistaken on this point and you are denying verbal preservation by your teaching.


    This has nothing to do with grammar. See, even that statement reveals jsut how little you know about this. Why do you keep on?? EVerytime you open your mouth, you say something ridiculous. This is about definitions, not about grammar.

    And you will never get around the fact that God said "elpis" and "faith" does not qualify. If "faith" had fit the general understanding better, then God would have said "pistis." He had every opportunity to and chose not to. Now, I side with God on this one. YOu don't.
     
  18. Craigbythesea

    Craigbythesea Active Member

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    No. Absolutely not!
     
  19. tinytim

    tinytim <img src =/tim2.jpg>

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  20. Ed Edwards

    Ed Edwards <img src=/Ed.gif>

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    Actually American Bible printers stole the
    copyrights that belong to the British
    Crown. Well, for the KJV they did.

    Everybody stop and send an Euro to
    the Queen for each KJV you
    have in your library and at least sooth your
    own conscience [​IMG]
     
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