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Stupid KJVO tricks.

Discussion in '2004 Archive' started by skanwmatos, May 1, 2004.

  1. skanwmatos

    skanwmatos New Member

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    And, of course, nobody is saying any of those things either. The difference between us is that I can post actual quotes from KJVOs on this forum which are patently false, but you have to make up fiction. Hmmmmm.
     
  2. Askjo

    Askjo New Member

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    Why did you lie? I did not say the KJV is WRONG!!!

    You are right because "saying" (logos) 50 times is NOUN, not VERB!!!!! Sorry, you are 100% wrong. The NKJV removed "communication" (noun).

    KJV - Matt. 5:37 But let your communication (NOUN) be, Yea, yea; Nay, nay: for whatsoever is more than these cometh of evil.

    New KJV - Matt. 5:37 But let your "Yes' be "Yes,' and your "No,' "No.' For whatever is more than these is from the evil one.

    Compare to NIV:

    NIV - Matthew 5:37 Simply let your 'Yes' be 'Yes,' and your 'No,' 'No'; anything beyond this comes from the evil one.

    But the problem is that these 3 Greek texts had "logos" (noun). Why did New KJV NOT follow its Greek text? Remove? Yes! You denied it.

    The KJV follows the TR:

    The TR Greek - Matthew 5:37 estw de o logoV umwn nai nai ou ou to de perisson toutwn ek tou ponhrou estin.

    The New KJV follows the MT/Byz:

    The MT/Byz - Matthew 5:37 estw de o logoV umwn nai nai ou ou to de perisson toutwn ek tou ponhrou estin.

    The W/H text - Matthew 5:37 estw de o logoV umwn nai nai ou ou to de perisson toutwn ek tou ponhrou estin.

    All of these Greek Texts agreed each other.

    Sorry, you are WRONG!

    [ May 01, 2004, 11:02 PM: Message edited by: Askjo ]
     
  3. Phillip

    Phillip <b>Moderator</b>

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    Nah, not the Oklahoma City bombing, McVeigh never read his Bible, but I guess you may be right as a secondary source since he did it as a result of what happened at Waco. :rolleyes:
     
  4. Phillip

    Phillip <b>Moderator</b>

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    double post. I guess that was the KJV's fault since I was saved after reading it. (After all it is a good Bible regardless of what you other guys think. :D )
     
  5. skanwmatos

    skanwmatos New Member

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    Yes you did! You said "say" is wrong. The KJV uses "saying" 50 times. If it is wrong in the NKJV it is wrong in the KJV.
    "Saying" is a transitive verb!
    The NKJV follows the Greek text exactly the same way the KJV follows the Greek text in Matt 1:20, 22, 2:2, 13, 15, 17, 20, 3:2, 3, 14, 17, 5:2, 31, 8:2, 3, 6, 17, 25, 27, 29, 31, 9:14, 18, 27, 29, 30, 33, 10:5, 7, 11:17, 12:10, 17, 38, 13:3, 24, 31, 35, 36, 14:15, 26, 27, 30, 33, 15:1, 4, 7, 12, 22, 23, 25, 16:7, 13, 22, 17:9, 10, 14, 25, 18:1, 26, 28, 29, 19:3, 11, 22, 25, 20:12, 30, 31, 21:2, 4, 9, 10, 15, 20, 25, 37, 22:4, 16, 24, 31, 35, 42, 43, 23:2, 24:5, 9, 25:11, 20, 37, 44, 45, 26:8, 17, 27, 39, 42, 44, 48, 65, 68, 69, 70, 74, 27:4, 9, 11, 19, 23, 24, 29, 40, 46, 54, 63, 28:9, 13, 15, and 18. And that is just the book of Matthew!
    LOL! ROFLOL!

    You claim the NKJV departs from the TR and follows the Majority Text, but you also admit the three texts, TR, MT, and CT all agree with each other! LOL! ROFLOL!

    If they say exactly the same thing, how can you say the NKJV departs from the TR in favor of the Majority text? They are all the same! LOL! ROFLOL!

    Askjo, please! Tell my you are yanking my chain! Please! I can't stand it any more! My sides are hurting from laughing so hard! Nobody can be as dumb as you are trying to make us think you are! Please! Tell us it is all just a big joke! Please! ROFLOL!
     
  6. Lacy Evans

    Lacy Evans New Member

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    22. It is OK to be KJV Only. . .er preferred, just as long as you admit to the preposterous-ness of the idea that God could ever get a translation right. (AKA, you are right if you agree with us!)

    23. God can preserve the perfect cannon of 66 books but not the words that make up those books.

    23b. We can hold to an absolutely perfect closed cannon without one verse of scripture to back it up, but not to the absolute perfect preservation of words.

    24. Only a word for word translation would be perfect. (AKA Sophomoric Translation Methods Onlyism, or STMOs.)

    25. KJVOs must have a verse that says, "Thou shalt only trust the KJV!" God forbid that MVers provide the same evidence for their position. A position that is "right" needs no scripture, only "wrong" positions must have scriptural support.

    26. God preserves things by letting them run down and then leaving final authority to the whims of anyone with a Strong's Concordance or an Amplified (Multiple Choice) Version.

    27. The KJV translators were baby-baptizing buffoons who couldn't translate their way out of a pineapple papaya papyrus.

    28. There are lots of mistakes in every Bible!

    (My favorite! If everybody knows about them then why doesn't someone correct them?)


    29. God did not promise to preserve his words. ( Ay Caramba!)

    30. We believe in the verbal, plenary thingamajigs. (AKA the Labrador principle - "Get me a Labrador and I'll retrieve it! . . . Have you got a Labrador? . . . Know where you can get a Labrador? . . . Then Shaddap!")

    I love you guys!

    Lacy
     
  7. Trotter

    Trotter <img src =/6412.jpg>

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    OK, Lacy, time to go to bed. You are getting a little punchy.
     
  8. Lacy Evans

    Lacy Evans New Member

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    "Saying" is a gerund.


    gerund (jerend)
    n.
    Gram.
    1 in Latin, a verbal noun in the singular of all cases but the nominative, used to indicate continuing or generalized action (Ex.: probandi in onus probandi, the burden of proving)
    2 in other languages, any of various forms analogous of this; specif., an English verbal noun ending in -ing that has all the uses of the noun but retains certain syntactic characteristics of the verb, such as the ability to take an object or an adverbial modifier (Ex.: playing in Playing golf is his only exercise)
     
  9. Askjo

    Askjo New Member

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    No, you did.
    Correct, you are right.
    Noun!!! logos!!!
    Not logos!!! What Greek word for "saying" (verb)?
    You are wrong to say:
    The NKJV never follows the TR. It follows the Hodges-Farstad Majority Text.
    If these Greek texts has "logos" (noun), please show me the NKJV follows "logos" on Matthew 5:37 - Where?
    They are verb, not logos!!!!! What Greek word for saying (verb)?
    They are noun and logos!!!!
     
  10. skanwmatos

    skanwmatos New Member

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    They are noun and logos!!!!</font>[/QUOTE]Well, sorry again, but once more you are wrong. If you insist on making a distinction, the Greek word in Matthew 15:19, 19:11, and 22, is "logon" and 28:15 is "legwn." [​IMG]

    I am sorry you are getting so frustrated being proved wrong so often and so publicly, but you have to admit it is funny.

    Here, I will give you a verse from the KJV, and the Greek from the TR. You tell me what English word is translated from "logos."

    Heb 5:11 KJV Of whom we have many things to say, and hard to be uttered, seeing ye are dull of hearing.

    Heb 5:11 TR peri ou poluv hmin o logov kai dusermhneutov legein epei nwyroi gegonate taiv akoaiv.

    Okay, Askjo. What English word in Hebrews 5:11 is translated from the Greek word "logos" (transliterated as logov by computers)?
     
  11. Askjo

    Askjo New Member

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    Not my fault! Internet and this BB because I copied the Greek verse from the Internet and pasted it on this BB, but I saw "logos on the Intenet. After I copied it, I pasted it on this BB. I saw changed spelling from "logoS" to logoN. I puzzled!
    The TR Greek Text: Matthew 28:15 oi de labonteV ta arguria epoihsan wV edidacqhsan kai diefhmisqh o logoV outoV para ioudaioiV mecri thV shmeron Notice logon here. I saw logos in the Internet and after I copied it, I pasted it here -- changed spelling "logos" to "logon." It should be logos.
    Heb 5:11 TR peri ou poluv hmin o logov kai dusermhneutov legein epei nwyroi gegonate taiv akoaiv. </font>[/QUOTE]"to say" (logos) is the act of speaking, speech.

    [ May 02, 2004, 01:55 AM: Message edited by: Askjo ]
     
  12. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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  13. Phillip

    Phillip <b>Moderator</b>

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    It's for h-i-s-t-o-r-i-c-a-l reference only,like Scofield's notes for example;neither did the KJB translators consider it scripture and neither was it in the reformation(Byzantine) texts.. </font>[/QUOTE]If it was for HISTORICAL reference only don't you think in all the cover pages and notes about the Bible that it was say so SOMEWHERE in the Bibles---any of them?

    NOWHERE, does it refer to the Apocrypha, even in the main Biblical cover-pages that make descriptions of what is included in the book that the Apocrypha is not part of scripture--it is not seperated from scripture, it is included right there between the Old and New Testaments with absolutely NO reference that it is NOT scripture.

    I HAVE these Bibles Anti-Alexandrian, if you can show me ONE single page or reference ANYWHERE in these BIBLES where it even HINTS that the Apocrypha is NOT scripture, then I will believe what you say. Otherwise, you don't know what you are talking about because you are basing what you are saying on KJVo literature, not the Bibles that I own.
     
  14. Phillip

    Phillip <b>Moderator</b>

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    This may be true Skan, but it does NOT take away the fact that every single Bible that I own printed between 1612 and 1850 all contain the apocrypha and there is absolutely NOTHING in any of these books that indicates that it is NOT scritpure. These are "mainstream" printings (or I wouldn't have them.) True, Bibles were printed without it, but these were not Catholic Bibles and I have a WHOLE stack of them, not to include the two I mentioned in another stream and the German Martin Luther edition (it is the only one that I cannot say the apocrypha is marked specially because I can't read German.) But, the others have ABSOLUTELY NO indication in any of the introductions or scriptural references that the apocrypha is NOT scriptural. The two I referred to were printed in America in 1817 and 1850 (I believe). They BOTH contains a LOT of introductory material and study material--but, sadly, NONE say anything to even HINT the Apocrypha is NOT part of the scripture.

    I am not talking about what England states, what councils state, or anybody else, I am talking about mainstream printed Bibles that were printed for protestants right here in the United States.
     
  15. skanwmatos

    skanwmatos New Member

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    Yes, I know.
    Sorry, but once again you are simply wrong. The Greek word "legein" is what is translated "to say." The Greek word "logos" is not translated at all! Just like in the NKJV!

    If the NKJV is wrong, as you say, so is the KJV for neither of them translate the word!

    Here, I will make it easy for you.

    peri ou poluv hmin o logov
    Concerning whom much to us the word

    kai dusermhneutov legein epei
    and hard to interpret to say since

    nwyroi gegonate taiv akoaiv.
    dull you have become in the hearing.

    See? The KJV does not translate the word "logos" just like the NKJV! Either both are right or both are wrong. You have have it both ways. [​IMG]
     
  16. skanwmatos

    skanwmatos New Member

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    I have a Zondervan KJV Study Bible lying open right in front of me. Between the Old and New Testaments is a section with the heading "From Malachi to Christ" and another with the heading "The Time Between the Testaments."

    NOWHERE, does it refer to those sections, even in the main Biblical cover-pages that make descriptions of what is included in the book that those sections are not part of scripture--they are not separated from scripture, they are included right there between the Old and New Testaments with absolutely NO reference that they are NOT scripture.

    I guess the Zondervan people just assumed we were smart enough to know they are not scripture, just like the KJV committees assumed you were smart enough to read their doctrinal statement and know the Apocrypha is not part of the canon. Zondervan was right about me. Were the KJV translators wrong about you? :D
     
  17. skanwmatos

    skanwmatos New Member

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    Do they specifically say the introductory and study material is not scripture? If not, aren't you displaying the same double standard you condemn the KJVOs for having?

    And, as they were printed in America, what do you expect from a bunch of rebels who don't respect copyrights?
     
  18. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    Anti_Alexandrian:Stupid Alexandrian "sect" tricks:

    1."bibles" from mss. compiled by Gnostics and Philosophers from Alexadria,Egypt are the word of God."


    A Bible authorized by a king full of shady tricks & written by Neo-catholic Baptist haters is the word of God. Can not God use anyone for anything?

    2".All "bibles" are equally the word of God."

    All VALID Bibles ARE.

    3."Inspiration applies ONLY to the original autographs."

    True. There's a difference between direct INSPIRATION and INFLUENCE.


    4."Erasmus had only a few late middle age MSS. to work with."

    He wasn't oversupplied, that's for sure. He had to copy & translate the last 6 verses of Revelation from the RCC Latin Vulgate. If he weren't aa catholic, he wouldn't've known those verses existed.


    5."There was no Textus Receptus untill 1633"

    Ritht. There were umpteen of them, not just one.


    6."No translation is inspired."

    Right. influenced, yes; inspired, no.


    7."People criticized the KJB when it was introduced,therefore the nasb,niv,rsv,ect.,are just as good."

    EVERY new BV has been criticized by someone somewhere. What's new?


    8."Many nations did not have a KJB before 1700:What did they do!?"

    YOU tell US.

    9."Your worshiping a Book."

    The adulation some show for the KJV is almost unnatural. You cannot deny it.


    10."The 'oldest and best' texts read........A better reading would be......"

    Correct.


    11."The KJB is confusing and difficult to understand and causes 'cults and sects'."

    Who uses Elizabethan English in everyday speech?

    But I disagree it causes cults, etc.


    12."Where was the word of God before 1611?"

    Rather, "Where was the WOG IN ENGLISH before 1611?


    This is just a small amount of the most aped "STUPID Alexandrian tricks" from the world's oldest "sect"..

    No tricks-in most cases, true statements and legitimate questions that arose from a modern myth created from the writings of a SDA.
     
  19. Lacy Evans

    Lacy Evans New Member

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    Ya mean my maps and concordance aint in-spired? What about my name whats in-graved on the front cover? They done de-stroyed my faith.

    Lacy :D
     
  20. Phillip

    Phillip <b>Moderator</b>

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    Lacy, I bet your name in da Book o' Life is inspired. I wouldn't worry too much about it on the front o' the Bible. [​IMG]
     
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