I am looking at my Interlinear Bible (Hebrew & Greek) printed by Hendrickson publishers and noticed an interesting note in the Preface. "This text retains a few readings from the Latin Vulgate, two or three without Greek-manuscript authority (eg Acts 9:5-6), and one from the Complutensian Bible (1 John 5:7). Although we do not accept these as true scripture, we will allow them to remain. . . " By the way, the source Greek for this Interlinear is Stephen Austin and Sons Received Text and the Masoretic text for the Hebrew. The Greek TR is actually based on the "original Greek Accoridng to the text followed in the Authorized Version, edited by F. H. A. Scrivener and published in 1894-1902. The appendix carries a very good chart that compares the TR and MT and shows all variations in one place....very interesting chart. Anyway, the point of this discussion is---are there really verses in the KJV that have absolutely NO Greek authority and were derived specifically from the Vulgate?