The Advantage but to no avail

Discussion in 'Other Christian Denominations' started by Dr. Walter, Aug 25, 2010.

  1. Dr. Walter

    Dr. Walter
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    Rom. 3:1 ¶ What advantage then hath the Jew? or what profit is there of circumcision?
    2 Much every way: chiefly, because that unto them were committed the oracles of God.


    Here again, Paul confirms that "the law" he has been speaking about and continues to speak about in referrence to the Jews is not the oral traditions but the written oracles of God.

    This question is being raised by Paul becuase he has proved that the Jews could not be justified under this law but were just as condemned as the Gentiles without the law. Hence, the natural question in light of this would be what Paul asks in Romans 3:1 - what advantage is there to being a Jew if you are condemned to sin equally as a Gentile?

    Paul's answer in essence is that the Jew had every advantage because they were given the GREATER LIGHT of God's written law when the Gentiles were given only the natural laws of nature (Rom. 1:19-20; 2:14-15).

    However, Paul's initial conclusion in Romans 3:9 is that regardless of the light given to the Jews they just like the Gentiles sinned against the light they were given and therefore all are "under sin":

    Rom. 3:9 What then? are we better than they? No, in no wise: for we have before proved both Jews and Gentiles, that they are all under sin;10 As it is written, There is none righteous, no, not one:


    Paul says that having the oracles of God gives the Jew a greater advantage in knowing explicitly in detail what is right and wrong in the sight of God and yet they "ALL" failed as "NONE, no, NOT ONE" measured up to this greater light.

    Therefore, in Paul's secondary conclusion to Romans 3:9 and final conclusion found in Romans 3:19-20 Paul argues from greater advantage to lessor advantage thus including both Jews and Gentiles "under sin" just as Romans 3:9 explicit states. That is, if the Jew with the GREATER ADVANTAGE of detailed written out commandments, thus knowing exactly what God requires to be righteous could not be justified under so great of light then "NO FLESH" can be justified by any lessor light and therefore:

    Rom. 3:19 ¶ Now we know that what things soever the law saith, it saith to them who are under the law: that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God.
    20 Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin.



    Those who oppose this interpretation of Romans 3:19 must explain:

    1. Why verses 19-20 are not the contextual conclusion beginning with Romans 3:9 through 3:18 which includes gentiles?

    2. Why the use of universal language "every mouth" instead of "every JEWISH mouth" and "all the world" instead of "Jews" and "no flesh" instead of "no Jews".

    3. Why is natural revelation and laws given by God (Rom. 1:19-20; 2:14-15) not consistent and thus inclusive with special revelation (Rom. 3:1-2, 19-20). Does God have two contrasting standards of righteousness or merely special revelation is greater than natural revelation but yet inclusive of natural?

    4. If greater special written revelation is inclusive of lessor natural revelation (e.g. Psa. 19) then why shouldn't both Jews and Gentiles be judged as under the law of God in Romans 3:19-20 and thus universal instead of ethnic language used as is found in this text?
     

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