From Skandelon's thread on Romans 11: Forget the whole C/A arguement for the moment and lets talk about this. I realize that in the past I've heard stories where the unsaved person says the Bible is all confusing and too difficult to understand and the preacher tells him that he's been reading someone's mail, but I've never put that story into the light of: God's words are only for His people--meaning those who are saved (and remember I don't care how they got that way!). Now that I stop to think about it, the reason I have never connected the two is because John says, "In the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God and the Word was God". And if that be so and if God really "loved the world", then that Word must then be for the guidance of the world. So, how does one scripturally support the belief that the scriptures could only apply to the saved and then in light of that answer my next question: What does the belief that scripture only applies to the saved say for Christianity's view that if only the whole world would follow Biblical precepts we be in a better postion? If the Bible doesn't apply to the unsaved, why do we fight politically to force it on them?