Greetings! In John 11:51,52, Caiaphas prophesizes “that Jesus should die for that nation; And not for that nation only, but that also he should gather together in one the children of God that were scattered abroad.” I believe that this verse is saying that Jesus would die for the nation of Israel (NOT limited atonement), but that He also died for the purpose of “gathering together in one” the children of God. Who do you consider these “children of God” to be? 1. the Jews that were scattered around the world. 2. God’s people in his foreknowledge. 3. ? (any other suggestion) And why do you think John wrote “who *ARE* scattered abroad”. If it is all saved of all time, why would the present tense be used? Your suggestions will be most welcome. NOTE: I know that the Calvinists would say that it is "God's elect", in the sense of people those whom God determined to save and consideres (according to Calvinism) his "children" already even though they were not saved yet; but I am interested in hearing other points of view other than Calvinism's. Thank you!