Many purport that the damning sin is the rejection of Jesus Christ. Some of those claim that those in the OT were saved just like those in the NT. My question deals with what Scripture states in the OT was the cause of the sinners separation from Christ. I only desire to see Scriptural responses from the OT as to the cause of the malady of sin and what is at the heart of our separation from God. If you do not know or cannot find any clear references, you can simply plead ignorance. If we are saved the same way as those in the OT, i.e. by faith, would not it be reasonable to assume that we are lost in the same manner as those were in the OT? Again, do not post your dogma unless you have a Scriptural foundation for it. Again we are looking for the cause of sins malady as recorded in the OT or that speaks to those in the OT. As far as the rejection of Jesus Christ as the damning sin, it would seem to have several problems, specifically in view of those gentiles in the OT. How were they to hear of the Messiah, being banned from the temple an not even being an object of the covenant God gave to the Jews? If God desired to give the gospel to the Gentiles in the OT, He sure had a peculiar way of showing it. Does not Ephesians paint an opposite view of that purported by some that state God grants to all men the opportunity of salvation and that the damning sin is the rejection of that offer? Ephesians 2: 11 ¶ Wherefore remember, that ye being in time past Gentiles in the flesh, who are called Uncircumcision by that which is called the Circumcision in the flesh made by hands; 12 That at that time ye were without Christ, being aliens from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers from the covenants of promise, having no hope, and without God in the world: 13 But now in Christ Jesus ye who sometimes were far off are made nigh by the blood of Christ. Does not this passage state clearly that the Gentiles, at least as a whole, were alienated from the covenants of promise, having no hope and without God? Where do we find that God offered all the Gentiles in the OT the right to partake of his covenant with the Jews? If an uncircumcised Gentile even tried to enter the sanctuary he would have been killed, would he not? Again, a strange way to offer the same hope to all as some proclaim is the case. If the damning sin is the rejection of Jesus Christ, how were the Gentiles to reject an offer that they had specifically been alienated from?