We were discussing in class the other day the decrees of God. The prof. put forward the infra-lap view of Creation Fall Election and the super-lap view of Creation Election Fall in terms of DECREES. He was clear to point out that both view all these decrees as prior to creation. My question is this, since God is eternal and omniscient, how does he decree the elect? (Regardless of how you view they are elected). I mean, he knows everything, and so He has always known who would be in heaven right? If so, why did He have to decree election? Hoping yall can shed some light on my feeble mind.