"the deeds of the law" - Rom. 3:28

Discussion in 'Other Christian Denominations' started by The Biblicist, Mar 2, 2012.

  1. The Biblicist

    The Biblicist
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    Rom. 3:27 Where is boasting then? It is excluded. By what law? of works? Nay: but by the law of faith.
    28 Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law.



    A. "Works" equals "Deeds"

    1. There are only TWO alternatives considered in verse 27 - "of works" versus "of faith".

    2. There are only TWO contrasting conclusions in verse 28 "by faith" versus "deeds of the law"

    3. Therefore "deeds" in verse 28 equals "works" in verse 27 just as "by faith" in verse 28 equals "of faith" in verse 27.

    Conclusion: "the works of the law" is snynomous with "the deeds of the law."


    B. The term "law" in verse 27 means "principle"

    1. Faith and works are being contrasted to each other in verse 27 with contrasting conclusions in verse 28.

    2. Yet both are characterized by the term "law" in verse 27

    3. The term "law" in verse 27 refers to contrasting PRINCIPLES by which one is justified. One principle of justification allows boasting while the other principle of justification prohibits boasting. The "law" or principle of justification by "works" allows boasting. The "law" or principle of justification by "faith" prohibits boasting.

    4. The principle of works is synonymous with justification by "the deeds of the law" whereas the principle that prohibits works is synonomous with "justification by faith WITHOUT the deeds of the law."

    5. Hence, the principle of justification by faith is "WITHOUT the deeds of the law." - v. 28


    C. The phrase "the deeds of the Law" or by "the works of the law" refer to any and all human failed attempts to conform to any form of God's revealed law/commandments/standard of righeousness by their own "deeds" or "works" for justification before God.

    1. This is why Paul says that Gentiles and Jews are both EQUALLY "under sin" - Rom. 3:9.

    2. This is why Paul concludes that Gentiles and Jews are both EQUALLY characterized by sin - Rom. 3:10-18

    3. This is why Paul concludes that Gentiles and Jews are both EQUALLY "under the Law" but "no flesh" can be justified by the law, that "all the world" is condemned by the law and that "every mouth" is shut by the Law and not merely the Jews.

    4. This is why Paul concludes that "THERE IS NO DIFFERENCE" between Jews and Gentiles in regard to condemnation under law for "ALL HAVE SINNED" and "ALL....HAVE COME SHORT OF THE GLORY OF GOD."

    5. This is why Paul concludes that BOTH Jews and Gentiles must be justified the very same way before the very same God "by faith without the deeds of the law" - Rom. 3:29-30

    6. This is why Paul concludes that justification by faith in Christ (vv. 24-26) is the only way the law of God can be vindicated because ony Christ's obedience IMPUTED TO US BY FAITH can fulfill its demands - v. 31 - because both Jews and gentiles by their own "deeds of the law" HAVE ALREADY SINNED AND COME SHORT!
     
    #1 The Biblicist, Mar 2, 2012
    Last edited by a moderator: Mar 2, 2012

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