For most of my life the churches I have attended have believed dispensationalism. It is not something that I have ever spent a lot of study over, and there have been some aspects of it that I never could completely agree with. For the sake of this discussion, I would like to keep the discus to the dispensation of the law. I have never read a Scofield bible, but I have been under the impression that it has gone a long way in making dispensatioalism as popular as it is today. I also have gotten the impression it was kind of a bench mark if you will. I recently read this quote from it. “The Dispensation of Promise ended when Israel rashly accepted the law Exodus 19:8. Grace had prepared a deliverer (Moses), provided a sacrifice for the guilty, and by divine power brought them out of bondage Exodus 19:4 but at Sinai they exchanged grace for law.” This kind of goes along with other things I have remember either hearing or reading over the years, where I have gotten the impression that is was kind of a arrogant or cocky “bring it on” type of attitude of the Jews to the law. Recently in doing some personal study I was reading this part of Exodus and I am not sure I understand it to be that way. In verse 19:8, it doesn’t sound like they were “rashly accepting the law in lieu of grace. They sound like they are enthusiastically responding to what God is asking of them. I mean seriously if God said to any of his children “if you will indeed obey My voice and keep My covenant, then you shall be My own possession among all the peoples, for all earth is Mine; and you shall be to Me a kingdom of priests and a holy nation.” Who would say, “no sorry God no thanks not for me, I’ll pass”? Also I am not so sure I believe that Gods moral laws were not known to them like this kind of alludes to. Sure now God was formally writing them down in stone, but these moral laws were not completely foreign to them were they? They knew it was wrong to murder (Cain). They knew it was wrong to lie. Just earlier in Exodus 16:23 we see that they were observing the Sabbath. It really doesn’t seem like this was some rash arrogant decision of the Jews, but rather a response to what God is asking of them. It also doesn’t seem like they were choosing to “exchange grace for the law” God did write down His moral law, and did go on to establish many other ceremonial and laws for their society, and we know many of the Jews started looking at keeping the law as their means of salvation. But weren’t they still under Gods grace? Weren’t the Jews who were saved the ones that believed in the coming Christ and understood that the sacrifices were looking forward to His coming and sacrifice for their salvation? Was God’s grace really gone? Maybe I am misunderstanding this, as I have mentioned it is not something I have spent a lot of time studying. But I would like to read what others believe about this to better help me learn more about it. Thanks in advance.