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Featured The Freedom of the Will

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by The Biblicist, Jul 12, 2013.

  1. The Biblicist

    The Biblicist Well-Known Member
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    You certainly have a right to your opinion but whether you are correct or not is another question.

    You must interpet Romans 7:14-25 and Galatians 5:16 to something else then? You must deny "the law" of indwelling sin within a Christian then? You must deny the words "neither indeed CAN be" in Romans 8:7 concerning the unregenerated or those "in the flesh" without the Spirit then (Rom. 8:8-9). If that is the case then there can be no further discusion with you as it is impossible to reason with a person who takes such a position concerning the nature of the will within the fallen man.


    The pre-fallen Adam had no such propensity as he was created "upright" and of Lucifer it is said that sin was "found in him." The propensity to sin only is derived from the "law of" indwelling sin in the fallen nature and from no other source.


    Not according to Paul's words in Romans 7:18 concerning his will. Not according to Paul's words in Romans 8:7.


    What determines his desires? His will? OR his Holy Nature???? Does the will control the nature or does the nature control the will? Where does your "want to" originate within you? From abstract "will" or from "intent and thoughts of the heart? Where does Jesus say all sin originates in Matthew 15? From the will or from the heart? The will is the slave of the heart not vice versa and this is true in God as much as in man.


    Have you read Philippians 2:12 or Romans 7:18? Both refer to the born again man of God and his power of will or choice. Read them.


    According to Paul no man has chosen to do good in an unregnerated state in God's estimation or sight - Rom. 3:10-12

    According to Christ no lost man chooses "good" indeed, no man is good but God in regard to intrinsic nature - Mt. 19:17 Take a look at the Greek term translated "good" (agathos) and you will see it means intrinsic or inherent good.
     
  2. The Biblicist

    The Biblicist Well-Known Member
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    If I had merely charged your arguments as being irrational, that is one thing. However, if I charged your arguments as being irrational AND provided reasons for that charge, that is quite another thing. You must first deal with my evidence for that charge and show why that is wrong. HOwever, instead of dealing with the evidence presented you jumped to charge me with being ungracious for making the charge and completely ignored the reasons given for that charge.

    According to your logic no one could ever charge your position and explanations as being irrational regardless of the evidence as you are not interested in any evidence but only in protecting your ego. Swallow your ego and look at the evidence and provide reasons why my estimation is wrong.
     
  3. MB

    MB Well-Known Member

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    God Does not lie because he has chosen not to. Not because a woman said He could not.


    If so; Then it isn't true that all things are possible with God. But then if you think about it. God does not sin because he has no rules that govern Him. A supreme God follows His own will. He is no more under the Law that leads us to Him. Than we are once we are indwelt by Him.
    MB
     
  4. InTheLight

    InTheLight Well-Known Member
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    Here we go again...

    See point #1 at link:

    http://www.baptistboard.com/showpost.php?p=2009038&postcount=4
     
  5. Revmitchell

    Revmitchell Well-Known Member
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    And I have done that. Of course in typical cal form all that will be ignored. And the pride is yours. Logic is not an argument.
     
  6. The Biblicist

    The Biblicist Well-Known Member
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    Convicted1 can answer for himself but it was not the woman who said that! It is the prophetic Word that said that. That being the case, do you think the Spirit lied or is it possible for God to lie? That is your choice!




    The law is called "the righteousness of God" because it is a revelation of His own nature which is holy. The law's standard of righteousness is derived from God's own heart. Love is the principle that sums up all the Law and is the expression of God's own nature for God IS love and God IS holy and they are inseparable. Hence, the law is a revelation of the moral nature of God in principle. Therefore it is erroneous to say has no rules that govern Himself as the law of God is "of God" and reveals how His moral nature operates and gives meaning to the words choliness" and "righteousness." Apart from the revealed law "of God" those words are empty of meaning.

    Remember, I am talking about the eternal PRINICPLE that undergirds all of God's revealed commandments not their particular form or application. Do you know the difference? The principle is "love" and love is doing what is right toward self and others. The Father loves the Son and that love is made manifest by his attitude and actions toward the Son and vice versa and the very same principle is applied to men and their relationship with each other and toward God. The law defines sin and righteousness.
     
    #26 The Biblicist, Jul 12, 2013
    Last edited by a moderator: Jul 12, 2013
  7. The Biblicist

    The Biblicist Well-Known Member
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    We are simply going around and around. Let's agree to disagree and go on. If you have some biblical based objections that deductive logic can be based upon then have at it.
     
  8. The Biblicist

    The Biblicist Well-Known Member
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    When evidence is provided to demonstrate the reasonability for the charge that is another story. I did provide evidence - deal with the evidence rather than attempt to derail the thread by this nonsense. Your response and reaction is the norm from those who cannot deal with evidence. You want to make it a personal issue, an emotional charged issue. Please, get back to the OP
     
  9. The Biblicist

    The Biblicist Well-Known Member
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    Back on track! There is no biblical basis to presume that the unregenerated state is placed in some kind of neutralized state and the will is somehow released from its bondage to sin so that it can choose Christ.

    Indeed, that ability is given by God to all who are taught by the Father and "every one" so taught does in fact come to Christ in faith - Jn. 6:44-45.
     
  10. agedman

    agedman Well-Known Member
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    Try looking at Hebrews 6:
    17 In the same way God, desiring even more to show to the heirs of the promise the unchangeableness of His purpose, interposed with an oath, 18 so that by two unchangeable things in which it is impossible for God to lie, we who have taken refuge would have strong encouragement to take hold of the hope set before us. 19 This hope we have as an anchor of the soul, a hope both sure and steadfast and one which enters within the veil,

    That is the point MB.

    God does follow His will - not a corrupt will, but one that is subject to HIS nature.

    He is incapable of evil or any evil intent.

    God's nature commands God's will and it is always in every way that which is righteous and holy.

    Man's fallen nature demands man's fallen will and it is always and in every way that which is unrighteous and unholy.

    Just as it is impossible for God to violate His nature and will to do that which is evil, it is impossible for heathen humankind to violate the fallen nature which drives their fallen will.
     
  11. agedman

    agedman Well-Known Member
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    Would it be correct to assume that by this statement you refute the teaching of "prevenient or preceding grace" that many teach as an interim grace that allows freedom of acceptance or rejection of salvation?
     
  12. MB

    MB Well-Known Member

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    A question of my own freewill? Present it.
    I do not interpret scripture. I pray and ask God for the wisdom to understand it. To interpret it means I'd have to explain it to my self. To understand it is to know what God meant. When I read something in scripture I do not understand I ask the Lord for understanding and guidance. I depend on God for everything because I realize that men are only pleasing them selves when they do anything apart from God. Interpretation of scripture is just that , it's apart from God.
    Sin dwells with in my flesh but not with in my spirit. I agree with the Law spiritually just as Paul did. My flesh has not been regenerated as of yet. It dwells in your flesh as well.
    Your trying to discern my faith based on Calvinism. The flesh can't understand the things of the spirit. But the spirit can and the spirit has never been disabled in any way that's just a bunch of Calvinism nonsense I call the doctrines of men.
    Of course not because you feel that you are right with you own ideas and interpretation,when you really don't have a clue.



    If this were true we would all be living in paradise. Adam could not have sinned with out the likely hood to do so. Did God say;
    Gen 2:17 But of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, thou shalt not eat of it: for in the day that thou eatest thereof thou shalt surely die.

    The underlined is Adams propensity to sin because God prophesied it.
    In verse 7:18 Paul is specifically speaking about the flesh. In verse 8:7 Paul is still speaking about the flesh. When Paul speaks about the dead spirit of man it is only a metaphor. The spirit of man quickens the flesh of man. If it were literally dead then so would be the man.


    The will can be influenced by God no matter how sinful. Are you telling me that God cannot influence man in spite of His sinfulness? Did you ever read about Pharaoh. How God harden Pharaoh's heart. If God can influence Pharaoh then He can influence any man.

    I read the Bible ever day and of course I've read them but what I haven't read there is your interpretation. It belongs to you not God

    This passage is the rantings of a fool in the Psalms. Paul used it to show that man is sinfull. Not reprobate and unable to respond. This is what Calvinist claim but it just isn't there.
    That is not what that verse says. Christ is telling the man there is no one good. Maybe you should go back and read this again. You are so busy interpreting it you lost the entire verse's meaning.
    MB
     
    #32 MB, Jul 12, 2013
    Last edited by a moderator: Jul 12, 2013
  13. Winman

    Winman Active Member

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    There is indeed scripture that says an unregenerate man has the ability to obey God if he chooses.

    Gen 4:6 And the LORD said unto Cain, Why art thou wroth? and why is thy countenance fallen?
    7 If thou doest well, shalt thou not be accepted? and if thou doest not well, sin lieth at the door. And unto thee shall be his desire, and thou shalt rule over him.

    We know from 1 Jhn 3:12 that Cain was "of that wicked one" and lost, yet God himself said "IF" Cain were to do well he would be accepted.

    This statement would be impossible if your doctrine is true. If Cain was not elect (and he wasn't), then it would be both impossible for him to do well, and he could not be accepted with God.

    No, God clearly implied that Cain had the ability to do well, and God said if he did well he would be accepted which also refutes Unconditional Election.

    There are no "ifs" in Calvinism, if you are not elect you cannot possibly do well and you cannot possibly be accepted, and if you are elect you must do well.

    You can't go 4 chapters into the Bible before you see that unregenerate man has the ability to obey God if he chooses.

    Actually, you can't go 3 chapters, Adam and Eve were lost when they sinned, yet they both obeyed God and came to him when he called.

    Total Inability is false doctrine EASILY refuted by MUCH scripture.
     
  14. MB

    MB Well-Known Member

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    You have a lot to say and none of it means a thing with out scripture to back it up and you haven't done that. What you have done is interpret it because you do not depend on God to give you understanding.
    MB
    MB
     
  15. The Biblicist

    The Biblicist Well-Known Member
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    So the command to "study to shew yourself approved a workman that needeth not to be ashamed" is no command to you. The exhortation to compare "spiritual things with spiritual" is no command to you? So you believe that the Bible is nothing more than proof texts unrelated to each other and that context means nothing to you. No wonder you cannot understand the scriptures because you go on mere feelings and feelings not tested by scripture lead only to error - Isa. 8:20.

    Corrrect! But you do not operate in the Spirt at all times or at least Paul didn't and the Galatians did not as they needed this exhoration (Rom. 7:14-25; Gal. 5:16-25). Again, read Romans 7:18 and you will see that the regenerated man has no "will" power over indwelling sin. The power comes from the indwelling Spirit of God not from your regenerated nature. Paul had a regenerated nature in Romans 7:18 but no will power in either his regenerate or unregenated natures. Go study this and then come back and we can take up the rest of your arguments as they all rest on this misunderstanding of scripture.
     
  16. The Biblicist

    The Biblicist Well-Known Member
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    You are confusing responsibility with ability. Fallen man is responsible for his sin but that does not mean he has ability to overcome it. Romans 7:18 and Gal. 5:16 clearly deny that even the regenerated man has such ability inherent in either his fallen or renewed nature. No reason for Philippians 2:13 if your position were true. Cain was a fallen man faced with his responsibility.
     
  17. Revmitchell

    Revmitchell Well-Known Member
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    No I don't what I have is scripture. And I have presented it. You failed to refute it with scripture. You made this about your logic. I made my points with scripture.
     
  18. The Biblicist

    The Biblicist Well-Known Member
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    Romans 3:21-22; Mt. 7:12; Rom. 12:7-9; there are tons of scripture that teach every statement I made. I made the mistake of assuming you were aware of these basic truths. Sorry! From this point forward I will provide scripture to support every statement.
     
  19. The Biblicist

    The Biblicist Well-Known Member
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    The prevenient grace argument simply has no biblical basis. It is an argument of deductive logic based upon presumptive assumptions that have no Biblical basis. The argument goes like this, If God commands all people to repent and believe then God must logically supply the ability for them to do so or else God is unjust. Hence, they blame sin and its consequences of inabiltity on God.
     
  20. Revmitchell

    Revmitchell Well-Known Member
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    No not "hence" because we do not draw the same conclusion as you. So there is no "hence". We do not believe what you posted based on logic, we believe it because that is what scripture says.

    Stick to scripture, throw out your logic and you will do much better.
     
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