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The KJV itself is against KJVO!

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by robycop3, Mar 24, 2008.

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  1. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    We all know that the AV translators were NOT KJVO from their comments in the preface of the AV1611, but is there anything in the TEXT besides the OT quotes found in the NT, and Luke 4;16-21, that shows the apostles were not bound to one version or translation? YES, THERE IS!

    In 2 Tim. 2:9 in the KJV, Paul says,"Wherein I suffer trouble, as an evil doer, even unto bonds; but the word of God is not bound.

    The Greek word rendered 'bound' here is 'deo', which means EXACTLY THAT. No amount of KJVO Scripture-twisting will make it correctly read any other way.

    Attempting to LIMIT GOD to the KJV alone in English is an attempt to bind His word, and, according to Paul, who had a 'hot line' to JESUS, that's just not gonna happen.
     
  2. David Lamb

    David Lamb Active Member

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    Although I am not KJVO, I wonder how valid your argument is? Is Paul discussing translations of the bible in 2 Timothy 2.9? No; he is surely saying that, although for the sake of the gospel, he himself is a prisoner, bound in chains, God's Word cannot be bound. The gospel of the Lord Jesus Christ was still going forth.

    I may be wrong, but at the moment I cannot see any reference whatever in 2 Timothy 9 to varying translations of the bible.
     
    #2 David Lamb, Mar 24, 2008
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  3. NaasPreacher (C4K)

    NaasPreacher (C4K) Well-Known Member

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    I agree. This is, IMHO, a stretch.

    The word of God is not bound in its power. I don't see anything to do with translations here. I would never accuse even the most ardent KJVO of having a mind that tries to bind His word.

    The Word of God is not bound in the KJV by any means.
     
    #3 NaasPreacher (C4K), Mar 24, 2008
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  4. franklinmonroe

    franklinmonroe Active Member

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    The exact phrase "word of God" never explicitly refers to written revelation in the New Testament. The term "word of God" in scripture seems to often have a meaning akin to 'the gospel message'. The apostles' immediate concern was not the committing of the gospel to parchment, but the preaching of the message to people.

    Although 2 Timothy is a later letter from Paul, it is unlikely that his epistles were gathered together in volumes at the time of this writing (67AD or later?). Certainly, the rest of (what would become) the New Testament (Gospels, etc.) was not even composed yet; neither were they combined with Hebrew texts. Therefore, the idiom "word of God" cannot refer to any complete 'Bible' editions as we know them.

    {see recent thread A Poster's 4 Questions for discussion about "word of God"}
     
    #4 franklinmonroe, Mar 24, 2008
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  5. Jerome

    Jerome Well-Known Member
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    Attempting to limit the canon of the New Testament to twenty-seven books is an attempt to bind His word, and, according to Paul, who had a 'hot line' to JESUS, that's just not gonna happen.
     
  6. Jerome

    Jerome Well-Known Member
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    Aha! Now we know why phylacteries were so hard to keep on. No matter how carefully one tied them on, the cords would mysteriously unravel. We know from Paul, who had a 'hot line' to JESUS, that any attempt to bind the Word was just not gonna happen!
     
  7. Dale-c

    Dale-c Active Member

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    One of the things that bugs me most about the KJVO movement in general is how people come up with the idea that the KJV is the only Bible and then they set out to find facts to prove their point.

    in my opinion, this appears to be the same method of logic.
     
  8. Dale-c

    Dale-c Active Member

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    To prove a KJVO proponent wrong we must not stoop to that type of argumentation.
     
  9. Salamander

    Salamander New Member

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    Roby stretch anything? Get real!
     
  10. Rubato 1

    Rubato 1 New Member

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    This explains why the Schofield Bibles' bindings always come apart near the beginning of Genesis...

    What paul was saying was that the version of God's word that is settled in heaven is not in book form; it must be a scroll.
     
  11. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    i shall respond to the above comments with one simple question...ARE THE SCRIPTURES BOUND(RESTRAINED) OR NOT?

    God is NOT LIMITED in how He may choose to present His word to man. paul was bound & restrained by other men, but God's word was not. KJVO or any other form of One-versionism is an attempt by certain men to place restrictions on God's word.
     
  12. NaasPreacher (C4K)

    NaasPreacher (C4K) Well-Known Member

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    I disagree roby. I do NOT believe that these men are attempting to bind God's word (well for the most part :) ). They are not seeking to place restrictions on God's word.

    They may err, but they certainly are not seeking to bind God or His word.
     
  13. Trotter

    Trotter <img src =/6412.jpg>

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    They are attempting to place restrictions on men regarding the word of God. Completely different. ;) Last time I checked God didn't respect the restrictions men try to put in place, and I have yet to find a box that would hold him.

    While I wouldn't try to use a proof text for my argument (the bible is silent regarding the issue... on both sides of the debate), the bible is very plain that God does what God does and that man does not have dominion over Him. Trying to force the opinion on other's that God only can speak through a single translation is definitely trying to put words in God's mouth. Hmmm... there is something about THAT in the bible, but again a proof text is not called for.

    Man-made doctrine... ANY man-made doctrine... comes from outside the bible. We would do best to worry about what the bible does teach instead of what we want to teach about the bible.
     
  14. Askjo

    Askjo New Member

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    Most people study about the Bible, but they did not study the Bible.
     
  15. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    Not In the 21st century, it is in a book form and we believe it all from Genesis to Maps.

    HankD
     
  16. HankD

    HankD Well-Known Member
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    And OBTW, I can see how Roby's point can be made...

    Many KJVO say that the MV's are not the Word of God but only "contain" the Word of God, therefore they (the MV's) bind those portions in these MV's which are not considered by them to be the Word of God.

    Paul would not agree, I'm sure.

    HankD
     
  17. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    I believe that when Paul made his statement, he meant that not only was God's word not bound in prison with him; it was not bound by men in any way at all. And I believe One-versionists are TRYING to bind God's word, and the people to whom it is preached, to their fave version, whatever it is. However it's plain they're not succeeding. If God chooses for a new version to be made & distributed in English, Spanish, or Slobbovian, it will be made & distributed no matter what any men do against it.

    It is GOD who decides just how His word will be presented by men to other men. And shame on us if we support any false doctrines about His word.
     
  18. Rubato 1

    Rubato 1 New Member

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    You believe, and that's great. But from the context, it is plain that Paul was saying that though he was bound and unable to go preach around the world, God's word was not bound, but was already all around the world.
     
  19. Salamander

    Salamander New Member

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    God's word is only bound by context, unless you'd like to add opinions to concoct doctrines and establish traditions.

    What Paul meant, under inspiration of the Holy Ghost, is that the word is not bound as to prevent it from reaching souls in need of salvation.

    The word of God is NOT bound, but has free course:
    II Thessalonians 3:1
    ΒΆ
    Finally, brethren, pray for us, that the word of the Lord may have [free] course, and be glorified, even as [it is] with you:

    2Th 3:2And that we may be delivered from unreasonable and wicked men: for all [men] have not faith.

    2Th 3:3But the Lord is faithful, who shall stablish you, and keep [you] from evil.
     
  20. robycop3

    robycop3 Well-Known Member
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    KJVO is an attempt by men to bind God's word, is it not?
     
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