John applies the adjective monogenes five times to Christ: 1:14, 1:18, 3:16, 3:18, and 1 Jo 4:9. While two other NT writers employ the term also, none besides John uses it for our LORD.But the word's meaning is much in dispute. Is its focus birthing or uniqueness? Translations differ, eg, in 1 :18: KJV=only begotten, NIV = only. One translation references a begetting. The other only references a uniqueness. (NOTE There is a textual issue in 1:18 as to whether in the original the adjective is describing God or Son- IMO, while in the other four texts "Son" is original, , in 1:18, John wrote "monogenes God." The etymology of the compound word (prefix-monos- suffix--genes) is also debated. Monos likely here means "one" but is genes from the verb "I birth" or the adjective "kind"? Even the most complete NT Greek dictionaries disagree on the meaning of monogenes: The 10 vol TDNT IV:74 thinks "a begotteness '. The 4 vol NIDNTT II:722-725 rather understands a uniqueness (only one of a kind). If one in the first century says "He is my monogenes son" Should we understand that the purpose is to inform that the son was born? Isn't it obvious that this son was born? Might we not better understand that the son is the unique (only one of his kind) son? BUT does what monogenes means really matter? IMO, yes! The Word occurs in nine NT texts, and we are expected to understand the NT! Further, as Christ is the Center of our Christian Faith,, we need to understand inspired Scriptural teaching about Christ!.