I was reading the thread started by John of Japan about the Greek Grammars and Helps and it brought to mind questions I have had about the Greek, and Hebrew studies. I have never studied either one, so my questions are coming from that position. OK, English is the only language I know anything about, but I know that words can change meaning over time. I think of the word Gay. In 2015 it is used to describe homosexuals, but in the 1890's the word was used in a totally different way. How do you folks who have studied the Original Languages know what the meaning was during the time frame being written about? I also wonder about the probable differences in the use of grammer since the originals were written. Each author was writing by the inspiration of God, but was also writing within the limits of there own education. Moses and Paul were highly educated for their times, but what of the other writers? In todays terms I think of it as comparing the writing skills of an average High School Dropout, to those of someone with a PHD in English. In 1900 years, one set of grammer rules probably won't fit for someone reading their writings. I might be wrong about this, but I think the originals were also written without the vowels. If that is correct, how do they determine the missing letters correctly. Even today we have how many different translations of the Bible?? They must be seeing different things for some reason, when they do the translations. Not counting anything denomination specific like the JW's for example. Just trying to read a real 1611 KJV is next to impossible to someone not familiar with it. The Geneva Bible I read a little of, didn't even seem like English. If someone tried to read those without knowing the correct grammer and word use for the times, they might come out with a warped sense of what was being said, and a migraine headache. I think I will leave it off here, and see what questions are generated by any answers.