KJV-only author D. A. Waite wrote: "I have found at least 3 errors in the Oxford edition of the KJB" (FOES OF THE KJB REFUTED, p. 117). Waite wrote: "In Jeremiah 34:16 the Oxford University Press King James Version is wrong, false, and in error" (FOES, p. 66). KJV-only author David Daniels wrote that the Oxford printers "mistakenly printed 'whom he' instead of the correct 'whom ye'" (ANSWERS TO YOUR BIBLE VERSION QUESTIONS, p. 127). Concerning this same verse, Thomas Holland claimed that "the error was limited to the editions published by Oxford or those based on the Oxford edition" (CROWNED WITH GLORY, p. 101). He identified it as "a printing error found in some current editions" (p. 100). Waite maintained that the rendering "sins" at 2 Chronicles 33:19 is "an error in the Oxford editions" (FOES, p. 66). David Daniels also referred to "sins" as "the Oxford error" (ANSWERS, p. 130). Concerning "sins," Daniels claimed: "Cambridge University Press did not make the printing error. And all Cambridge-type texts have the correct readings" (p. 129). Are these statements by KJV-only authors accurate or true? Was Oxford's press or printer the one responsible for introducing this renderings into the text of the KJV? How do these "errors" affect the view of the KJV-only poster who claimed that the 1769 Oxford KJV is the correct one?