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The Word became Flesh and dwelt among us ( Jn 1:14)

Discussion in 'Other Christian Denominations' started by Eliyahu, Jan 24, 2008.

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  1. standingfirminChrist

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    Where do you read He got it before?
     
  2. TCGreek

    TCGreek New Member

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    So are we only going to get our glorified bodies when we appear before the Father in Heaven?
     
  3. standingfirminChrist

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    We will receive our glorified bodies at the moment we see Christ... at that moment we shall be like Him for we shall see Him as He is.
     
  4. DHK

    DHK <b>Moderator</b>

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    How did he present himself (in his humanity) to the Father if he did not already have his glorified body.
    How did a weakened body, already dead for three days, rise through the grave clothes and the tomb itself if it had not been a glorified body?
    Then what kind of body was it? The only other body was the body that was dead and in the grave.
    That is the reason he was able to live among men as we are able to live. The life of the flesh is in the blood. He had blood just like you and I. But His blood was shed on the cross.
    Being without blemish and spot refers to his sinlessness not his flesh.
     
  5. TCGreek

    TCGreek New Member

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    1. In 1 Cor 15:35 we read, "But someone will say, "How are the dead raised? And with what body do they come?"

    v. 38, "God gives it a body jus as He wished..."

    v. 42, So also is the resurrection of the dead. It is sown a perishable body, it is raised an imperishable body.

    v. 43. "IT is sown in dishonor, it is raised in glory; it is sown in weakness, it is raised in power.

    2. Keep in mind that Jesus "has been raised from the dead, the first fruits of those who are asleeep" (1 Cor 15:20).

    3. BTW, this took place at the Resurrection for Jesus and it will take place at our Resurrection.
     
  6. standingfirminChrist

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    Christ's body was not sown in corruption. 1 Corinthians 15 is speaking of the Believer, not Christ Himself.
     
  7. cowboymatt

    cowboymatt New Member

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    What does "sown in corruption" mean? That could mean so many things, couldn't it?
     
  8. TCGreek

    TCGreek New Member

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    Paul disproves your argument about the believer's body at the resurrection.
     
  9. TCGreek

    TCGreek New Member

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    Well, Scripture is the decider.

    "It is sown perishable." Isn't our body in its current form perishable and subjection to the weakness of this life?

    That is why Paul says in another place that we are awaiting the redemption of our bodies (Rom 8:23).
     
  10. cowboymatt

    cowboymatt New Member

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    I completely agree with you. I think that the confusion comes from the poor translation "sown in corruption," which means something quite different from "It is sown perishable."

    Who doubts that Jesus' body was perishable. He died. LOL.
     
  11. DHK

    DHK <b>Moderator</b>

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    1 Corinthians 15:3-4 For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures; And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures:

    The above is the gospel, according the Scriptures, as we know it.

    Let's conjecture for just a moment. The Bible says that he rose again on the third day. For three days and nights he was in the grave. Suppose, that on the second day, the disciples somehow had access to the tomb. What would they have found? Would the body of Jesus still have been there? Since he didn't arise until the third day the answer is yes. What condition would the body be in? Normally, a body, after two days would stink. The maggots would have started to eat away at it.
    Martha knew this. After four days she protested to Jesus: "But Lord he stinketh." She knew that in spite of embalming, the body at death undergoes a process of corruption, decay, degeneration. That is what was happening with the body of Jesus. It was probably happening at a much faster rate with the body of Jesus because of all the open wounds that he had. Infection would have set in very quickly. After two days the body would have indeed been very corrupted, and would have "stunk."
    There is no way that one could possibly say that this body was not a corruptible body, for it was.
    But the disciples were not able to enter the tomb on the second day. They entered on the first day of the week, after Christ had risen from the dead. He was not there. When they saw him some time later they saw him in an incorruptible body, a glorified body, the same body that he has right now as he sits at the right hand of the throne of God ever making intercession for us.
     
  12. standingfirminChrist

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    Christ's body was not sown in corruption. The psalmist prophesied that He would not see corruption. The Word of God is true.
     
  13. TCGreek

    TCGreek New Member

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    The Word of God is true and you should quote it all, not just part of it.

    1. "He looked ahead and spoke of the resurrection of Christ, that He was neither abandoned to Hades, nor did His flesh suffer decay" (Acts 2:31, NASB).

    2. To let His body remain in the grave beyond three days and never to be raised, was to "suffer decay," but His resurrection countered that.
     
    #93 TCGreek, Jan 28, 2008
    Last edited by a moderator: Jan 28, 2008
  14. DHK

    DHK <b>Moderator</b>

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    I have demonstrated to you otherwise. I believe you have a misunderstanding of Scripture.
     
  15. standingfirminChrist

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    I have demonstrated through Scripture otherwise. How could Christ live in a corruptible body and not see corruption?

    The answer, He couldn't.
     
  16. DHK

    DHK <b>Moderator</b>

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    You can't quote partial verses and make a case.
    You can't make a case through opinion alone.
    You can't make a statement without any Scriptural verification.
    TC just finished explaining the Scripture that you say makes your case, but points out that you only quote part of the verse, thus taking it out of context. All you are holding on to is an opinion which is not Scriptural and without any defence.
     
  17. standingfirminChrist

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    You cannot add to Scripture to make a case either. Nowhere does Scripture say Christ had a corruptible body. Nowhere does Scripture say His body was decaying those days He was in that tomb.

    Yet you say the Spotless Son of God was corruptible.
     
  18. DHK

    DHK <b>Moderator</b>

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    He was. Why do you insist on taking Scripture out of context. The person is more than flesh and bones. It was Christ that was spotless, not his flesh! He was the sinless lamb of God before the foundation of the world. Was his FLESH before the foundation of the world? I think not! He was the sinless, perfect, spotless Son of God. He is. Not his flesh. But Christ Himself. Flesh, in and of itself, is not sinful. Can you demonstrate that it is?
     
  19. Heavenly Pilgrim

    Heavenly Pilgrim New Member

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    HP: I believe if we could start from this premise in our discussions, we may find far more agreement with each other. I could not agree more with you here. :thumbs:

    If flesh in and of itself is not sinful, neither can sin be passed on via the flesh. Sin is not based in the propensities of the flesh, but rather in the will yielding itsef to them in a selfish manner as opposed to a benevolent manner. The heart of sin is seated in the will of man, not in the flesh.
     
  20. Eliyahu

    Eliyahu Active Member
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    Typical accusation found in Roman Catholic.
    The verse indicate that Jesus looked like only son of man though He was Son of God and Son of Man.
    Do you believe Jesus was a servant not the Son ?

    Read John 8:31-36.

    You are confused between the different similarities.

    Does this verse tell you Jesus took the sinful flesh?

    Please answer clearly:

    Did Jesus offer the Sinful Flesh to God?
     
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