That the Word is not the same thing as the word was brought up in another thread in the Bible Versions forum. I have a few questions surrounding this. Since the word, "logos," is used in John 1:1-8, and the word "logos" is used in Acts 4:4 and many, many other places, then can we make a distinction between the Word of God and the word of God? I realize that we shouldn't worship a man made object (a book with covers and printing on the pages), but neither should we worship a man (flesh on bone with blood for life). Yet, Jesus was 100 percent man. The Bible is 100 percent paper bound in leather (or whatever). Yet, God was able to express (one of the literal meanings of logos is expression) himself perfectly the first time through the person of Jesus without error, why would he not express himself through the Bible (also a logos of God) in a perfect way? Both are expressions of God, would they then not be perfect? The reason I ask is that I believe in the infallibility of the scriptures, as I know that many of you do. Some say, however, that it is only perfect in the originals. Do we have any originals to prove this, or is this just conjecture? I know, I know, lots of questions. I would appreciate comments from all sides of this issue. I may be totally off. If so, correct me.