I just finished listening to a debate between Dr. Jas. White and Tim Staples, a Roman catholic apologist. In the question and answer period a gentleman asked Mr. Staples to explain Rom 5:1 "...being justified by faith...." to be past tense etc. Both men went to the greek to support their position coming up with opposite viewpoints. So, which greek translation do I believe. What is an ignorant fundamentalist like me to do? I now have two greek scholars giving me two different interpretations of the verse, both talking about "future conjunctives" and "accents on the peanut" or something like that.