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"This is my body which is ________ for you?"

Discussion in '2004 Archive' started by Daniel David, Feb 20, 2004.

  1. rsr

    rsr <b> 7,000 posts club</b>
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    Bro. Curtis, I'm sure no one here is asking you to throw out your KJV. I cut my teeth on the KJV. I still think in KJV. When I want to look up a verse, I remember the KJV wording, then go to the ESV (or NET Bible, which has wonderful notes.) I, as others here, do not condemn the KJV. It is a fine translation, a very beautiful translation. But it is, in the end, a translation.

    This argument is not really about versions. It's about silliness. I have an aversion to silliness being applied to God's word. That's all.
     
  2. Bro. Curtis

    Bro. Curtis <img src =/curtis.gif>
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    RSR, I probably worded my response wrong. I'm with you on this. This argument has destroyed otherwise sound churches, and I hate to see it happen.

    Originally posted by tinytim.....

    At least I won't have to apologize to God for slandering his words in the NIV.


    That is what I was addressing.


    The KJV is a translation, a good translation, but still, a translation. It is not inspired obove the original texts, nor does it correct any errors, nor will KJVO's get a mansion on the upper east side opf Heaven, while the MV users get stuck in the slums.

    Sorry about the misunderstanding.
     
  3. RaptureReady

    RaptureReady New Member

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    When the soldiers came to brake the legs of the men on the crosses. They did not brake Jesus' legs because he was already dead. Therefore, his bones were not broken, but I believe Paul is talking about the heart of Jesus.

    BTW, great posts Precepts.
     
  4. tinytim

    tinytim <img src =/tim2.jpg>

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    This is to let everyone know that I took no offense with Precepts comments. He knows that I'm not a cult member, It was a personal joke.

    Anyway, back on topic, I see no contradiction in the KJB either. The only way for Christ to be given to us was to be broken. And no, I'm not talking about his bones. I also agree that his heart was broken.

    I simply believe that the Holy Spirit decided to use two differing words to describe the same action.

    Since Paul wasn't there he had to hear it from someone that was., I'm sure the other apostles filled him in. Later, he wrote what (through the Holy Spirit) he remembered. I'm sure Luke did the same thing.

    Just my thoughts.
    BTW, Dr Bob, I appreciate the "small" sarcasm. :D
     
  5. Dr. Bob

    Dr. Bob Administrator
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    You guys want to shoot at each other? Okay by me. Just don't cross the line.

    Remember, also, that many come by this forum and are APPALLED at the name calling, labeling and libeling. They may not catch the "humor".
     
  6. Dr. Bob

    Dr. Bob Administrator
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    BACK ON TOPIC

    Matthew, Mark, Luke all record
    "This is my body for you"

    In some Greek ms, the account in I Cor 11 says
    "This is my body for you"

    In other Greek ms, the account in I Cor 11 says
    "This is my body broken for you"

    It doesn't take a rocket scientist to see that one family of Greek documents of I Cor 11 agrees with the three Gospel accounts; the other doesn't.

    Hence we have two different English translations, depending on which Greek ms you use. I will opt for the one that agrees with the Gospels where "broken" never appears. It is obviously the correct one.
     
  7. timothy 1769

    timothy 1769 New Member

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    OK Dr. Bob,

    Which Gospel got the placard above the cross correct?
     
  8. Daniel David

    Daniel David New Member

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    timothy1769, all the gospels got that correct.

    The problem with this text is not the same.

    Paul is quoting what Christ said. Paul wasn't there. He is quoting what Luke said. Luke's gospel doesn't contain 'broken'.

    Look, I know that it can be theologically explained to mean something other than his bones, but that isn't the issue.

    The issue is that the KJV translators, errrrggggg, pope worshipers, added more of their pathetic anglican influence into the translation.

    I honestly tire of posting the errors and horrible examples of pathetic translations in the KJV only to have the KJVO folks cover their ears and blab blah blah blah. Sheeagle, grannygumbo, askjo, timothy1769, AA, are just a few of the guilty ones.
     
  9. skanwmatos

    skanwmatos New Member

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    The only problem with the "it doesn't belong there" theory is that the word "broken" is found in the third corrector of Aleph, the third corrector of C, the second and third corrector of D, G, K, P, Psi, 81, 88, 104, 181, 326, 330, 436, 451, 614, 629, 630, 1241, 1739 (marginal), 1877, 1881, 1962, 1984, 1985, 2127, 2492, 2495, all the Byzantine mss, all the Lectionaries, plus the early versions and many of the Church Fathers.

    In fact, the only manuscripts which omit the reading "klwmenon" (broken) are p46, Aleph (prior to correction), A, B, C (prior to correction), 33, and 1739 (prior to correction) and six Church Fathers.

    So, the manuscript evidence seems to favor the inclusion of the word.
     
  10. Daniel David

    Daniel David New Member

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    skanwmatos, the bottom line for the UBS/NA test is that it DOESN'T belong. Again, given that Paul was quoting Luke, you KJVOs are in the awkward position of defending an INCLUSION. God has serious warnings about adding to his word.
     
  11. timothy 1769

    timothy 1769 New Member

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    Paul wasn't quoting Luke, He was quoting what he received of the Lord:

    1Co 11:23 For I have received of the Lord that which also I delivered unto you, That the Lord Jesus the same night in which he was betrayed took bread:
    1Co 11:24 And when he had given thanks, he brake it, and said, Take, eat: this is my body, which is broken for you: this do in remembrance of me.
     
  12. timothy 1769

    timothy 1769 New Member

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    Originally posted by Daniel David:
    Look, I know that it can be theologically explained to mean something other than his bones, but that isn't the issue.


    We don't have to go that deep, just check a good dictionary.

    The issue is that the KJV translators, errrrggggg, pope worshipers, added more of their pathetic anglican influence into the translation.

    I thought this was a purely textual issue? :confused:

    I honestly tire of posting the errors and horrible examples of pathetic translations in the KJV only to have the KJVO folks cover their ears and blab blah blah blah. Sheeagle, grannygumbo, askjo, timothy1769, AA, are just a few of the guilty ones.

    It sounds like you despise the KJV and some of your brothers too. If only we would properly love one another instead. :( It's not just you, I confess I felt an unkind urge to "slap you down" and "put you in your place" when I first read your post, so please forgive me for that.

    Looks to me like we both have a long way to go.
     
  13. timothy 1769

    timothy 1769 New Member

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    I agree, but let me play devil's advocate.

    How can they have all gotten it correct? They all report something slightly different.
     
  14. Dr. Bob

    Dr. Bob Administrator
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    All correct in the Gospel (sign above the cross) in that each recorded a part of it. Nothing in error, just not the total message.

    Are we trying to parallel that here? That none of the Gospel writers "got it right" on the Lord's supper and that Paul not only quotes but ADDS material that was missing from the Gospels?

    It is one thing to correlate all of the Gospel accounts to come up with the cross message.

    It is another thing to add a word in the Epistles that is in NO Gospel accounts.

    Hence the best Greek (before the correctors tried to edit it to match the Eastern catholic versions) do not ADD to the Word of God this extra word "broken".
     
  15. timothy 1769

    timothy 1769 New Member

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    I disagree, it's exactly parallel. For all we know, there was another word (that didn't matter) placed on the sign as well, that NO ONE reported.

    Paul's account IS just as much an historical account as the others, explicitly received from the Lord Himself. Just as with the sign, all the reports of the last supper are complementary, not contradictory. You can put them all together to get the fullest picture in just exactly the same way.

    Simply put, if this line of reasoning works for the sign, it works for Jesus's words at the last supper too. After all, all concerned* got their info DIRECTLY from the Lord Himself, so Paul and the four evangelists all stand on exactly the same ground here.

    * Excluding Luke and Mark, but since their writings were equally inspired by the Holy Ghost, it really doesn't matter.
     
  16. Precepts

    Precepts New Member

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    Was the Lord's body "broken" or not? Yes. Paul was not wrong. The KJB is not wrong.
     
  17. skanwmatos

    skanwmatos New Member

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    First, UBS/NA could be wrong, and does not represent the final authority. Even UBS/NA admits their confidence in the correctness of that omission is only a "B."

    Second, "you KJVOs" could not be more wrong. I am not now nor have I ever been KJVO. I am one of the most vocal opposers of KJVO.

    Third, as Paul was writing under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit he may have included that which was given but not recorded in the Gospel account (John 21:25) or Jesus Himself may have been giving the words to Paul. Whatever the case, the manuscript evidence is stronger in support of the reading than the manuscript evidence against it.

    Forth, well, there is no forth. [​IMG]
     
  18. Precepts

    Precepts New Member

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    So now do we have the product of the democratic process by the majority rule?

    Why deny you're KJVO? You fit somewhere in their labeling scheme,why they even fit into at least the # 1 label, we're all KJVO's!

    But why not just use common sense? Is that too simple for the "highly edjurmacated"?
     
  19. michelle

    michelle New Member

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    Peace and love to you all in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour!

    Pastor Bob
    What right, or by what authority do we have to determine whether the Apostle Paul, who was inspired by God Almighty to write what he wrote, and is given authorization to be of the scriptures, to decide what it was he wrote? If the majority of the texts include this word, there should be no questioning it. To make a decision based solely upon the fact that the gospels did not mention this, and denying all those manuscripts that make it quite evident that this was something that Paul said, is denying and usurping the authority of the Apostle Paul, and in reality the authority of God Almighty Himself.

    May the Lord richly bless you all!

    love in Jesus Christ our Lord and Saviour,
    michelle
     
  20. Dr. Bob

    Dr. Bob Administrator
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    That is really really really bad reasoning Michelle. Simple illustration: Latin replaced Greek in almost all of Western Civ, Latin translations of Scriptures will be very prevalent in those regions. Greek copies would be put in libraries, monasteries, storage.

    In the Eastern Roman Empire, Greek remained the common language for 1500 years. Thousands of copies of copies of copies would have been made and used in Greek.

    So after 1500 hundred years, you will have a pile of documents from one side, and only a handful from the other.

    With me so far? Now, which general pile will be more accurate? Weight (number) has NOTHING TO DO with the outcome.

    Each variant reading between the two piles will be judged on:
    *How close in origin they were to the original (canon 1)
    *How complex was the reading in question (canon 2)
    *How much was added into the text (canon 3)
    *Which reading explains all the variants (canon 4)
    *Which has the widest geographical support (canon 5 - not just copies of copies of copies)
    *Which reading fits the author/purpose/context (canon 6)
    *Which reading does not show a doctrinal bias (canon 7 - not added to fight against a heresy)

    These basic canons in the study of ANY documents in ANY language work well for seeing the differences in the "two piles".

    The Majority is not always right. The Authority is.
     
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