I enjoy reading John Calvin, and I do agree with much - but not all – of what he states. Since Calvinism is not a product of Calvin, but also a product of Beza, I have a question that seem to have plagued me throughout this forum. (Even if you hold to a pre-Beza “Calvinism,” the question is actually the same). When, in time, did "Calvinism" actually reject traditional Calvinistic doctrine to become what many on this post has termed as “Calvinism” (that is, solely Calvinistic soteriology – the five points)? In other words, a person can be termed a “Calvinist” but only accept the Beza’s doctrines of grace in regards to salvation and predestination– rejecting all the rest. Calvin, Beza and Knox are very clear about what they determined as Reformed belief or Calvinism – their definitions extended beyond soteriological views. Calvinism as used on this board doesn’t match with their definition. This doesn’t make sense to me, and I’m trying to understand exactly when this shift from Calvinism to Reformed Soteriology became officially the “Calvinism” (are is the term just used to counter reformed views derived from Calvinism, ie. Arminianism?).