I'm just wondering how you folks feel about whether one's view of Traducianism affects one's view of the atonement. Normally, those advocating either limited atonement or general atonement argue that Christ was paying for the sins of a certain number of people on the cross, either the sins of the elect or the sins of everyone (potentially). If a person holds to Traducianism (the belief that an infant's depraved spirit/soul comes from its father or both parents rather than from God), however, would that mean that Jesus was paying only for the sin of Adam that we all committed in Adam (Romans 5:12)? This may have been discussed here in the past. If so, I missed it.