Just a quick question that has come up on a couple of threads. When is it better to use a cultural idiom instead of a literal translation? For example, in Romans 6v2 the KJV uses a cultural idiom to translate μη γενοιτο as 'God forbid.' The NKJV uses a much closer literal translation when it translates the phrase as 'certainly not.' Would the current idiom 'No Way!' have suited as well as 'God forbid?' Which translation is superior and why?