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Tribulation Question

Discussion in '2004 Archive' started by ddavis, Oct 8, 2004.

  1. DeafPosttrib

    DeafPosttrib New Member

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    I heard it before.

    There are two different views on 'Lord's day' of Rev. 1:10. Some say, it means day of the Lord - "seven year of tribulation period", some say, it means Sunday.

    Again, I understand of Rev. 1:10 tells us, in that day in the year around 95 A.D., the Lord appeared to John by the 'revelation', that was how John wrote that book.

    In Christ
    Rev. 22:20 -Amen!
     
  2. Michael Hobbs

    Michael Hobbs New Member

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    R.J.
    I don't believe you have a "scriptural case" for this argument. First, the text in Revelation 13 is referring to an empire or power structure and not a literal creature with 7 heads and 10 horns. Thus, the "wound to death" is not a physical wound but some sort of military or political "wound". Second, the verses state the "wound" is healed, not someone being resurrected. Satan is a created being, not a spirit, so he is already incarnate. The Antichrist is a separate being that is empowered by Satan (vs 9).
    So, your premise is that the "man of sin" is resurrected into "Satan incarnate" is lacking scriptural proof.

    I do believe 2 Thess 2 is the "gathering", as verse 1 states. Christ returns to get His Bride. Thus, the body of Christ and the Holy Spirit are removed from the earth.
    2 Thessalonians 2:7-8
    The "mystery of iniquity" is already at work. I believe the Antichrist is alive today and setting up his forces for when he takes over the world. However, he cannot take over or be revealed yet because he is restrained by the Holy Spirit and the Church. As soon as the "gathering" takes place, the Holy Spirit and the Church are no longer here to restrain him and he is revealed and the events of the Tribulation soon follow. Then, as the last part of verse 8 tells us, at the end of the Tribulation when Christ returns and sets foot on the Mt of Olives, the Antichrist is taken and cast into the Lake of Fire (Rev. 19:20). Note: Satan joins him in Rev. 20:10.
     
  3. danrusdad

    danrusdad New Member

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    Except there is NOT ONE bit of scripture that ever says that one of the functions of the HS is to restrain evil! The HS convicts, comforts, etc, but never is the HS described as restraining evil. Further, the church CANNOT be in mind here because the church is NEVER referred to as a 'he', we are the BRIDE of Christ. This is nothing more than another example of pre-tribbers forcing their pre-concieved belief onto a scripture that, in reality, offers no support to their argument.
     
  4. wopik

    wopik New Member

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    IMO, the Lord's Day is the seventh day Sabbath -- the fourth commandment.

    Only the seventh day is ever referred to as the Lord’s Day: see Genesis 2:3; Ex. 20: 10-11; Isaiah 58:13; Isaiah 56:4; Mark 2: 28; Matt 12:8.

    In Revelation 14:7, John says he saw an angel (or messenger) saying, “with a loud voice, ‘Fear God and give glory to him that made heaven, and earth, and the sea, and the fountains of water. ’ ”

    Now there is only one commandment, which tells us and indeed was given to remind us who created the heavens, the earth, and the sea, and the fountains of water. That commandment is the seventh day Sabbath of the fourth commandment, “Remember the Sabbath day to keep it holy….for in six days the Lord made heaven and earth, the sea……” (Exodus 20: 8-11).

    “For by Him [Jesus] were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth….all things were created by Him and for Him [Jesus]” (Colossians 1: 16).

    “……by whom also He made the worlds” (Hebrews 1:2).

    Even in the New Testament Church, the God of creation is the one to worship, fear and to honor (Rev 14:7).

    The seventh day Sabbath is the Creator's day -- an honorable day to HONOR Him (Isaiah 58:13).

    http://www.nisbett.com/sabbath/sunday_not_lords_day.htm
     
  5. R. Charles Blair

    R. Charles Blair New Member

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    Just a quick note on the Greek of II Thess. 2:7 - it is a bit odd. A literal reading is: "until out of midst he comes." One possible interpretation is that the "hinderer" is the AntiChrist himself; he hinders not by presence, but by absence, "until out of the midst he rises."
    I realize this flies in the face of almost every post on this thread, but "the one hindering" may well gramatically refer to "the lawless one" himself, who waits to be revealed. I remember well how I resisted the Greek of this passage when I first looked at it, and how I tried to fit into one of the "standard" views. If you can't buy into this, I understand; but take a good look at it before you reject it completely. Best in Christ - R. Charles Blair - Rom. 8:28
     
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